Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects
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B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic
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Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Description : Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Last Answer : D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Description : Which of the following is always true: A. A more potent drug is more efficacious B. A more potent drug is safer C. A more potent drug is clinically superior D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

Last Answer : D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Description : Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that: A. It is more potent orally B. It is longer acting C. It produces less muscarinic side effects D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptors

Last Answer : B. It is longer acting

Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Description : Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Last Answer : C. Is incompletely absorbed

Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Description : Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug: A. Is freely water soluble B. Is completely absorbed C. Is incompletely absorbed D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

Last Answer : C. Is incompletely absorbed

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Description : If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is: A. Highly potent B. Highly efficacious C. Highly toxic D. Highly selective

Last Answer : D. Highly selective

If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Description : If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics: A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time B. Its clearance value will remain constant C. Its elimination half life will increase with dose D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 × half life period

Last Answer : B. Its clearance value will remain constant

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Description : The following statement is not correct for uremic patients: A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened B. Pethidine can cause seizures C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level

Last Answer : A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs eliminated through the kidney is hastened

Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Description : Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of: A. Continuous use of agonists B. Continuous use of antagonists C. Chronic use of CNS depressants D. Denervation

Last Answer : A. Continuous use of agonists

Assuming roughly equivalent molecular weights, which of the following would have the highest boiling point? (a) a tertiary amine (b) a quaternary ammonium salt (c) an alcohol (d) an ether

Description : Assuming roughly equivalent molecular weights, which of the following would have the highest boiling point? (a) a tertiary amine (b) a quaternary ammonium salt (c) an alcohol (d) an ether

Last Answer : a quaternary ammonium salt

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : Ans: A

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Description : Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers: A. Greater safety B. Therapeutic superiority C. Capacity to produce more intense response D. Cost saving

Last Answer : C. Capacity to produce more intense response

When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Description : When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit: A. Ceiling effect B. Desensitization C. Therapeutic window phenomenon D. Nonreceptor mediated action

Last Answer : C. Therapeutic window phenomenon

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Description : Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’: A. Placebo is a dummy medication B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets C. Placebos do not produce any effect D. All patients respond to placebos

Last Answer : A. Placebo is a dummy medication

A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Description : A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another drug is a: A. Physiological antagonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial agonist

Last Answer : C. Noncompetitive antagonist

‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Description : ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to: A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug C. The dose of the drug needed to produce half maximal effect D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect

Last Answer : B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug

The following statement is not true of ‘potency’ of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by the relative position of its dose-response curve on the dose axis C. It is often not a major consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Description : The following statement is not true of potency' of a drug: A. Refers to the dose of the drug needed to produce a certain degree of response B. Can be related to that of its congeners by ... consideration in the choice of a drug D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Last Answer : D. It reflects the capacity of the drug to produce a drastic response

Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Description : Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the ... the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug

Last Answer : A

Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Description : Reflex bronchoconstriction is most likely to occur with the following form of inhaled antiasthma medication: A. Metered dose spray of drug in solution B. Dry powder rotacap C. Nebuliser D. Nebuliser with spacer

Last Answer : B. Dry powder rotacap

Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Description : Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Last Answer : A. Oral

Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Description : Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism: A. Oral B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Rectal

Last Answer : A. Oral

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Description : A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Last Answer : C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Description : A prodrug is: A. The prototype member of a class of drugs B. The oldest member of a class of drugs C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Last Answer : C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of (A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure (C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these

Description : Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of (A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure (C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Protein present in hemoglobin has the structure known as (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary

Description : Protein present in hemoglobin has the structure known as (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary

Last Answer : Answer : D

How should CH3CHClCH2CH3 be classified? (a) primary alkyl halide (b) secondary alkyl halide (c) tertiary alkyl halide (d) quarternary alkyl halide

Description : How should CH3CHClCH2CH3 be classified? (a) primary alkyl halide (b) secondary alkyl halide (c) tertiary alkyl halide (d) quarternary alkyl halide

Last Answer : secondary alkyl halide

The following statement is true in relation to ‘drug toxicity’ and ‘poisoning’: A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning

The following statement is true in relation to ‘drug toxicity’ and ‘poisoning’: A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Description : The following statement is true in relation to drug toxicity' and poisoning': A. The two terms are synonymous B. When a toxic effect requires specific treatment, it is called poisoning C. ... is called poisoning D. Toxicity is caused by drugs while poisoning is caused by other harmful chemicals

Last Answer : C. A toxic effect which endangers life by markedly affecting vital functions is called poisoning

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects

The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Description : The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called ‘physiological antagonism’ because: A. Both are physiologically present in the body B. They act on physiological receptors C. Both affect many physiological processes D. They have opposite physiological effects

Last Answer : D. They have opposite physiological effects

If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Description : If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Last Answer : B. 80 L

2 If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Description : 2 If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0 g and its plasma concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is: A. 100 L B. 80 L C. 60 L D. 50 L

Last Answer : B. 80 L