Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary
amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then:
A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’
B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a
miotic
C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the
body
D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a
miotic
by

Related questions

Out of two anticholinesterases, drug ‘X’ is a tertiary amine while drug ‘Y’ is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug ‘X’ is likely to be more potent than ‘Y’ B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic C. Drug ‘Y’ will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug ‘Y’ will produce CNS effects

Description : Out of two anticholinesterases, drug X' is a tertiary amine while drug Y' is a quarternary ammonium compound. Then: A. Drug X' is likely to be more potent than Y' B. Drug X' will be more ... a miotic C. Drug Y' will be completely metabolized in the body D. Drug Y' will produce CNS effects

Last Answer : B. Drug ‘X’ will be more suitable to be used as a miotic

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Description : Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect: A. It is less potent B. It is shorter acting C. It does not have antiandrogenic action D. It produces more CNS side effect

Last Answer : C. It does not have antiandrogenic action

The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation C. They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : The following is true of sulfonamides except: A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble B. They are primarily metabolized by acetylation ... in the urinary tract D. Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : A. They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble

Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following property common to all members: A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. They are more active in acidic medium C. They ... cells and are distributed in total body water D. They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Last Answer : A. They are primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli

The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Description : The following drug/drugs does/do not produce any overt CNS effect in normal individuals but exert(s) clear cut therapeutic effect at the same dose in the presence of a specific neurological/psychiatric disorder: A. Chlorpromazine B. Levodopa C. Imipramine D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. Levodopa

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low B. It is inactivated by the gut microflora C. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because: A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents ... the microbes of the normal gut flora D. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits

Last Answer : A. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind acetylcholine B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules C. Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Description : The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibition of cholinesterase because: A. They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteratic site to bind ... degradation of enzyme molecules D. They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

Last Answer : B. Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

Assuming roughly equivalent molecular weights, which of the following would have the highest boiling point? (a) a tertiary amine (b) a quaternary ammonium salt (c) an alcohol (d) an ether

Description : Assuming roughly equivalent molecular weights, which of the following would have the highest boiling point? (a) a tertiary amine (b) a quaternary ammonium salt (c) an alcohol (d) an ether

Last Answer : a quaternary ammonium salt

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : Ans: A

Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses

Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Description : Olanzapine has the following features except: A. It is an antipsychotic drug with weak D2 receptor blocking action B. It has potent 5-HT2 blocking and antimuscarinic actions C. It lowers seizure threshold D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent extrapyramidal side effect

The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Description : The progestin used in combined oral contraceptive pill is a 19-nortestosterone derivative because: A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own B. They do not produce any metabolic effects C. They produce fewer side effects D. They are longer acting

Last Answer : A. They have potent antiovulatory action of their own

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Description : Adrenaline is inactive orally because it is: A. Not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation D. Taken up by adrenergic nerve endings of the intestinal wall, liver and lungs

Last Answer : C. Completely metabolized in the intestinal mucosa and liver before reaching systemic circulation

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Description : Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Last Answer : B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases

Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Description : Pralidoxime can reactivate cholinesterase enzyme that has been inactivated by: A. Carbamate anticholinesterases B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases C. Both carbamate and organophosphate anticholinesterases D. Reversible anticholinesterases

Last Answer : B. Organophosphate anticholinesterases

Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of (A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure (C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these

Description : Denaturation of proteins involves breakdown of (A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary structure (C) Quarternary structure(D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Protein present in hemoglobin has the structure known as (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary

Description : Protein present in hemoglobin has the structure known as (A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quarternary

Last Answer : Answer : D

How should CH3CHClCH2CH3 be classified? (a) primary alkyl halide (b) secondary alkyl halide (c) tertiary alkyl halide (d) quarternary alkyl halide

Description : How should CH3CHClCH2CH3 be classified? (a) primary alkyl halide (b) secondary alkyl halide (c) tertiary alkyl halide (d) quarternary alkyl halide

Last Answer : secondary alkyl halide

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Description : elect the drug which relieves anxiety but neither reacts with benzodiazepine receptor nor produces any overt CNS effect: A. Oxazepam B. Thioproperazine C. Buspirone D. Chlordiazepoxide

Last Answer : C. Buspirone

The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil

Description : The following drug is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by diazepam: A. Dexamphetamine B. Doxapram C. Physostigmine D. Flumazenil

Last Answer : D. Flumazenil

Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Description : Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression

What is true of tolerance occurring in regular opium abusers: A. Tolerance develops to all actions of morphine B. No tolerance occurs to euphoric and sedative actions of morphine C. No tolerance occurs to constipating and miotic actions of morphine D. Lethal dose of morphine is not significantly increased

Description : What is true of tolerance occurring in regular opium abusers: A. Tolerance develops to all actions of morphine B. No tolerance occurs to euphoric and sedative actions of morphine C. No ... to constipating and miotic actions of morphine D. Lethal dose of morphine is not significantly increased

Last Answer : C. No tolerance occurs to constipating and miotic actions of morphine

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following drug has potent antiandrogenic and weak progestational activity: A. Ethylestrenol B. Clomiphene citrate C. Cyproterone acetate D. Magestrol acetate

Description : The following drug has potent antiandrogenic and weak progestational activity: A. Ethylestrenol B. Clomiphene citrate C. Cyproterone acetate D. Magestrol acetate

Last Answer : D. Magestrol acetate

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. It has no central action

Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Description : Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscarinic drug for use before and during surgery because: A. It is potent and fast acting B. It has no central action C. It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Description : Select the inhalational general anaesthetic which is metabolized in the body to a significant extent: A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane C. Ether D. Halothane

Last Answer : D. Halothane

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Description : 'Diffusion hypoxia’ is likely to occur only after use of nitrous oxide because it: A. Is a respiratory depressant B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration C. Is a very potent anaesthetic D. Interferes with diffusion of oxygen into the tissues

Last Answer : B. Has low blood solubility and is used in high concentration

Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble (c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are ... in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : Ans: B

The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability

Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. All of the above

Description : Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Metoclopramide

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Description : The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: A. Amlodipine B. Nifedipine C. Diltiazem D. Verapamil

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioral abnormalities in children: A. Valproic acid B. Phenobarbitone C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide

Description : The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioral abnormalities in children: A. Valproic acid B. Phenobarbitone C. Phenytoin D. Ethosuximide

Last Answer : B. Phenobarbitone

Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property (a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli (b) They are more active in acidic medium (c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water (d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Description : Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property (a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli (b) They are more active in acidic medium (c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water (d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver

Last Answer : Ans: A

Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low (b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora (c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Description : Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because (a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic ... (d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well

Last Answer : Ans: A

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct