Choose the correct statement about sibutramine: A. It is an anorectic drug used to assist weight reduction B. It is an atypical antidepressant C. It is a 5-HT1D receptor antagonist D. Both A and C are correct

Choose the correct statement about sibutramine:
A. It is an anorectic drug used to assist weight
reduction
B. It is an atypical antidepressant
C. It is a 5-HT1D receptor antagonist
D. Both A and C are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It is an anorectic drug used to assist weight
reduction
by

Related questions

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Description : Choose the drug which is used as a short-term inotropic in severe congestive heart failure and has selective adrenergic β 1 agonistic activity but no dopaminergic agonistic activity: A. Dopamine B. Dobutamine C. Amrinone D. Salmeterol

Last Answer : B. Dobutamine

Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure: A. Terazosin B. Doxazosin C. Trimazosin D. Tamsulosin

Description : Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure: A. Terazosin B. Doxazosin C. Trimazosin D. Tamsulosin

Last Answer : D. Tamsulosin

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

Agonistic action on which of the following adrenergic receptors located on ciliary epithelial cells reduces aqueous secretion: A. β1 receptor B. β2 receptor C. α1 receptor D. α2 receptor

Description : Agonistic action on which of the following adrenergic receptors located on ciliary epithelial cells reduces aqueous secretion: A. β1 receptor B. β2 receptor C. α1 receptor D. α2 receptor

Last Answer : D. α2 receptor

Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects except: A. Sweating B. Rise in blood pressure C. Bradycardia D. Urination

Description : Cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation produces the following effects except: A. Sweating B. Rise in blood pressure C. Bradycardia D. Urination

Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure

The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Description : The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Last Answer : A. Postganglionic parasympathetic

Which of the following is a selective α 1A receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure: A. Terazosin B. Doxazosin C. Trimazosin D. Tamsulosin

Description : Which of the following is a selective α 1A receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure: A. Terazosin B. Doxazosin C. Trimazosin D. Tamsulosin

Last Answer : D. Tamsulosin

The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Description : The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site: A. Postganglionic parasympathetic B. Adrenal medulla C. Autonomic ganglia D. Neuromuscular junction

Last Answer : A. Postganglionic parasympathetic

The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : What is true of risperidone: A. It is an atypical neuroleptic which produces few extrapyramidal side effects B. It has combined dopamine D2 and 5-HT2 receptor blocking activity C. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. b) Sucralfate (Carafate) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. c) Famotidine (Pepcid) Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Description : Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine ... antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Last Answer : a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells.

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men: A. Yohimbine B. Papaverine C. Alprostadil D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men: A. Yohimbine B. Papaverine C. Alprostadil D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Description : The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is: A. Phenoxybenzamine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotoxine D. Tolazoline

Last Answer : B. Ergotamine

Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning: A. Atropine sulfate B. Pralidoxime C. Diazepam D. Adrenaline

Description : Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning: A. Atropine sulfate B. Pralidoxime C. Diazepam D. Adrenaline

Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate

To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Description : To be used as a topically applied ocular beta blocker a drug should have the following properties except: A. Strong local anaesthetic activity B. High lipophilicity C. High ocular capture D. Low systemic activity

Last Answer : A. Strong local anaesthetic activity

The anticholinesterase action of edrophonium is short lasting because termination of its action depends on: A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme B. Hydrolysis of the drug by the enzyme C. Synthesis of fresh enzyme molecules D. A combination of the above three processes

Description : The anticholinesterase action of edrophonium is short lasting because termination of its action depends on: A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme B. Hydrolysis of the drug by the enzyme C. Synthesis of fresh enzyme molecules D. A combination of the above three processes

Last Answer : A. Dissociation and diffusion of the drug from the enzyme

Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine

Description : Select the drug that suppresses essential tremor, but not parkinsonian tremor: A. Procyclidine B. Propranolol C. Promethazine D. Prochlorperazine

Last Answer : B. More potent α adrenergic blocking than β blocking activity

Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Description : Select the drug which can impair carbohydrate tolerance in prediabetics but prolongs insulin hypoglycaemia: A. Salbutamol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men: A. Yohimbine B. Papaverine C. Alprostadil D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men: A. Yohimbine B. Papaverine C. Alprostadil D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning: A. Atropine sulfate B. Pralidoxime C. Diazepam D. Adrenaline

Description : Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning: A. Atropine sulfate B. Pralidoxime C. Diazepam D. Adrenaline

Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate

Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Description : Choose the selective estrogen receptor modulator that is useful in dysfunctional uterine bleeding by acting as estrogen antagonist in endometrium, but does not alter vaginal epithelium or cervical mucus: A. Ormeloxifene B. Tamoxifen C. Centchroman D. Danazol

Last Answer : . Ormeloxifen

Acetylcholine has no therapeutic application because: A. None of its actions are beneficial in any condition B. Its effects are transient C. It produces wide spread actions affecting many organs D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Acetylcholine has no therapeutic application because: A. None of its actions are beneficial in any condition B. Its effects are transient C. It produces wide spread actions affecting many organs D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

The following is true of fenfluramine except: A. It lacks CNS stimulant action B. Its use has been associated with cardiac abnormalities and pulmonary hypertension C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake D. It enhances serotonergic transmission in the brain

Description : The following is true of fenfluramine except: A. It lacks CNS stimulant action B. Its use has been associated with cardiac abnormalities and pulmonary hypertension C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake D. It enhances serotonergic transmission in the brain

Last Answer : C. It causes weight loss independent of reduced food intake

Which of the following drugs has been used both as orally active nasal decongestant as well as appetite suppressant, and has been implicated in precipitating haemorrhagic stroke: A. Dexfenfluramine B. Phenylpropanolamine C. Isoxsuprine D. Oxymetazoline

Description : Which of the following drugs has been used both as orally active nasal decongestant as well as appetite suppressant, and has been implicated in precipitating haemorrhagic stroke: A. Dexfenfluramine B. Phenylpropanolamine C. Isoxsuprine D. Oxymetazoline

Last Answer : B. Phenylpropanolamine

Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature: A. Potency B. Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Duration of action D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

Description : Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature: A. Potency B. Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Duration of action D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

Last Answer : D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

The following action of adrenaline is mediated by both α and β receptors producing the same directional effect: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Intestinal relaxation C. Dilatation of pupil D. Bronchodilatation

Description : The following action of adrenaline is mediated by both α and β receptors producing the same directional effect: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Intestinal relaxation C. Dilatation of pupil D. Bronchodilatation

Last Answer : B. Intestinal relaxation

The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is: A. Methacholine B. Bethanechol C. Benzoylcholine D. Butyrylcholine

Description : The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is: A. Methacholine B. Bethanechol C. Benzoylcholine D. Butyrylcholine

Last Answer : B. Bethanechol

Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature: A. Potency B. Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Duration of action D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

Description : Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature: A. Potency B. Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Duration of action D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

Last Answer : D. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects

The following action of adrenaline is mediated by both α and β receptors producing the same directional effect: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Intestinal relaxation C. Dilatation of pupil D. Bronchodilatation

Description : The following action of adrenaline is mediated by both α and β receptors producing the same directional effect: A. Cardiac stimulation B. Intestinal relaxation C. Dilatation of pupil D. Bronchodilatation

Last Answer : B. Intestinal relaxation

The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is: A. Methacholine B. Bethanechol C. Benzoylcholine D. Butyrylcholine

Description : The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase is: A. Methacholine B. Bethanechol C. Benzoylcholine D. Butyrylcholine

Last Answer : B. Bethanechol

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Losartan is a: A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist D. AT1 receptor partial agonist

Description : Losartan is a: A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist D. AT1 receptor partial agonist

Last Answer : A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist

Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It is a synthetic atropine substitute used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation

Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms

In hyperthyroidism, β adrenergic blockers are used: A. To induce euthyroid state B. As definitive therapy C. For rapid control of certain symptoms while awaiting response to carbimazole D. To reduce basal metabolic rate

Description : Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional α1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties: A. Carvedilol B. Celiprolol C. Acebutolol D. Metoprolol

Last Answer : C. Acebutolol

Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional α1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties: A. Carvedilol B. Celiprolol C. Acebutolol D. Metoprolol

Description : Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional α1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties: A. Carvedilol B. Celiprolol C. Acebutolol D. Metoprolol

Last Answer : A. Carvedilol

In a patient of myocardial infarction, β adrenergic blockers are used with the following aim/aims: A. To reduce the incidence of reinfarction B. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias C. To limit size of the infarct D. All of the above

Description : In a patient of myocardial infarction, β adrenergic blockers are used with the following aim/aims: A. To reduce the incidence of reinfarction B. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias C. To limit size of the infarct D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Description : Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion: A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Esmolol D. Atenolol

Last Answer : D. Atenolol

The following is not a feature of cardioselective beta blockers, when compared to propranolol: A. They are ineffective in suppressing muscle tremor B. They are safer in diabetics C. They are less likely to cause bradycardia D. They are less likely to worsen Raynaud’s disease

Description : The following is not a feature of cardioselective beta blockers, when compared to propranolol: A. They are ineffective in suppressing muscle tremor B. They are safer in diabetics C. They are less likely to cause bradycardia D. They are less likely to worsen Raynaud’s disease

Last Answer : C. They are less likely to cause bradycardia

Esmolol has the following features except: A. Rapidly developing, shortlasting β adrenergic blockade B. Cardioselectivity of action C. Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity D. Suitability for intraoperative use

Description : Esmolol has the following features except: A. Rapidly developing, shortlasting β adrenergic blockade B. Cardioselectivity of action C. Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity D. Suitability for intraoperative use

Last Answer : C. Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adrenergic blocker: A. Bisoprolol B. Timolol C. Sotalol D. Esmolol

Description : Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adrenergic blocker: A. Bisoprolol B. Timolol C. Sotalol D. Esmolol

Last Answer : D. Esmolol