According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen:
A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6
months
B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2
months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone
for 6 months
C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2
months
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months
by

Related questions

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Description : Indicate the second line antitubercular drug that is being preferred to supplement ethambutol + streptomycin in case of hepatotoxicity due to isoniazid/ rifampin/pyrazinamide: A. Ethionamide B. Cycloserine C. Ofloxacin D. Capreomycin

Last Answer : C. Ofloxacin

In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Last Answer : B. Initial two months

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Description : As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs ... are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C'

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

Description : The intermittently multiplying (spurter) tubercle bacilli present within caseous material having low oxygen tension are most susceptible to: A. Ethambutol B. Rifampin C. Streptomycin D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : B. Rifampin

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone

The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : A. Isoniazid

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI C. Fluid restriction is recommended so that the antimicrobial drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Description : Choose the correct statement in relation to treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Majority of UTIs are caused by gram positive bacteria B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent ... drug gets concentrated in urine D. Most acute UTIs are treated with a combination antimicrobial regimen

Last Answer : B. Smaller doses of the antimicrobial agent suffice for lower UTI

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Description : The following regimen is preferred for nonsurgical termination of pregnancy in the first 7 weeks: A. Intravenous oxytocin infusion B. Intramuscular carboprost C. Intravaginal mifepristone followed by intraamniotic dinoprost D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprostol

Last Answer : D. Oral mifepristone followed by oral misoprosto

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

Sputum fungal smear?

Description : Sputum fungal smear?

Last Answer : DefinitionA sputum fungal smear is a laboratory test that looks for fungus in a sputum sample.Sputum is the material that comes up from air passages when you cough very deeply.Alternative NamesKOH test; ... is no discomfort.Why the test is performedYour doctor may order this test if you have abno

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA.d. Tuberculosis.

Description : Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA. d. Tuberculosis.

Last Answer : d. Tuberculosis.

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage

Description : The characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is: A. Hepatitis B. Visual defects C. Vestibular disturbance D. Renal damage

Last Answer : B. Visual defects

Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Description : Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease: A. Tetracycline B. Cotrimoxazole C. Cephalexin D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Tetracycline

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline

Last Answer : C. Clofazimine

Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Description : Multidrug therapy with dapsone + rifampin ± clofazimine is the treatment of choice for: A. Multibacillary leprosy B. Paucibacillary leprosy C. Dapsone resistant leprosy D. All forms of leprosy

Last Answer : D. All forms of leprosy

Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Description : Occurrence of the following adverse reaction absolutely contraindicates further use of rifampin in the treatment of tuberculosis: A. Respiratory syndrome B. Cutaneous syndrome C. Flu syndrome D. Abdominal syndrome

Last Answer : A. Respiratory syndrome

Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Description : Concurrent use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic should be avoided with the following antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Vancomycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Description : As an antitubercular drug, isoniazid has the following advantages except: A. It is tuberculocidal B. It acts on both extra and intracellular bacilli C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it D. It is cheap

Last Answer : C. Tubercle bacilli do not develop resistance against it

The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid

Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid

Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine

Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Last Answer : C. Cimetidin

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole

Last Answer : C. Metronidazole

The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Description : The preferred regimen for preventing duodenal ulcer relapse is: A. Maintenance antacid regimen B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen C. On demand intermittent H2 blocker regimen D. Maintenance sucralfate regimen

Last Answer : B. Maintenance H2 blocker regimen