Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral
protease inhibitors:
A. They act at an early step in HIV replication
B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than
zidovudine
C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many
other drugs
D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
by

Related questions

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Description : Select the drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme: A. Zalcitabine B. Efavirenz C. Stavudine D. Nelfinavi

Last Answer : D. Nelfinavir

Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Description : Choose the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that is less likely to inhibit CYP2D6 and CYP3A4 resulting in fewer drug interactions: A. Sertraline B. Paroxetine C. Fluoxetine D. Fluvoxamine

Last Answer : A. Sertraline

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Presently, the goal of antiretroviral therapy is: A. Eradication of HIV from the body of the patient B. Inhibit viral replication to undetectable levels C. Restore immune competence of the patient to effective level D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C

The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Description : Currently, monotherapy with zidovudine is recommended for: A. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count more than 200/μl B. Asymptomatic HIV positive subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl C. HIV positive subjects with opportunistic infection D. None of the above

Last Answer : D. None of the above

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Description : The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of mutual antagonism: A. Stavudine B. Lamivudine C. Nevirapine D. Ritonavir

Last Answer : A. Stavudine

The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above

Description : The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s): A. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis C. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above

Last Answer : B. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis

Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics: A. All have antiinflammatory property B. All lack dependence producing liability C. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms D. All inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Last Answer : B. All lack dependence producing liability

The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Description : The initial regimen for antiretroviral therapy of previously untreated HIV patient consist of: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI C. Three NRTIs D. Any of the above

Last Answer : D. Any of the above

ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Description : ndicate the anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures: A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI) B. Three NRTIs C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Last Answer : D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus? (A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin

Last Answer : (B) Zidovudine

An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Description : An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine + nelfinavir developed intolerable adverse effects. Then: A. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously C. The drugs should be stopped one by one D. Two drugs sh

Last Answer : B. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously

Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Description : Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Last Answer : B. Both are too toxic for systemic use

The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Description : The following is applicable to itraconazole except: A. It has largely replaced ketoconazole for treatment of systemic mycosis B. It does not inhibit human steroid hormone synthesis C. It is ... the treatment of fungal meningitis D. It can interact with terfenadine to produce ventricular arrhythmias

Last Answer : C. It is preferred for the treatment of fungal meningitis

Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself, but its metabolite alloxanthine is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Description : Choose the correct statement about allopurinol: A. It is a purine antimetabolite with antineoplastic activity B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase C. It is inactive itself ... D. Both allopurinol as well as its metabolite alloxanthine are noncompetitive inhibitors of xanthine oxidase

Last Answer : B. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Description : Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin: A. It is a synergistic combination of two similar antibiotics B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is active against most resistant coccal infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after some time B. Adverse effects of antiretroviral drugs compromise the quality of life of asymptomatic subjects C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Description : Antiretroviral therapy is not recommended in asymptomatic HIV infected subjects with CD4 cell count more than 350/µl because of the following reason(s): A. All antiretroviral drugs lose efficacy after ... C. The treated subjects may produce and transmit drug resistant virus D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

Antiviral drugs that are base analogs inhibit a. Viral Entry. b. Genome Replication. c. Uncoating. d. Naturation.

Description : Antiviral drugs that are base analogs inhibit a. Viral Entry. b. Genome Replication. c. Uncoating. d. Naturation.

Last Answer : b. Genome Replication.

Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Erythromycin

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Description : Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide

Last Answer : B. Allopurinol

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Zidovudine inhibits the following virus/viruses: A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : A. Human immunodeficiency virus

What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Description : What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic chloramphenicol: A. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression C. Its potential to cause superinfections D. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression

ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Description : ntithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Last Answer : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis

Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Description : Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues

Last Answer : . Inhibit thyroxine synthesis

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Description : The following is true of vancomycin except: A. It is a bactericidal antibiotic active primarily against gram positive bacteria B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis C. It is an alternative to penicillin for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can cause deafness as a dose related toxicity

Last Answer : B. It acts by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Description : Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that: A. It is dose to dose less potent B. It has a shorter plasma half life C. It does not produce an active metabolite D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

Last Answer : D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine

4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved C. They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : 4 Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas: A. They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology B. They should ... antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea D. They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : B. They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved

Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Description : Choose the correct statement about H2 receptor blockers: A. They are the most efficacious drugs in inhibiting gastric acid secretion B. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach D. They afford most prompt relief of ulcer pain

Last Answer : C. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach