As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse (category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the following respect(s): A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given in the initial intensive phase B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5 months C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the continuation phase instead of two (HR) D. Both 'A' and 'C'

As per WHO guidelines, treatment of failure or relapse
(category II) patients of smear positive pulmonary
tuberculosis differs from that of new cases in the
following respect(s):
A. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs are given
in the initial intensive phase
B. Duration of intensive phase is increased to 5
months
C. Three drugs (HRE) are given in the
continuation phase instead of two (HR)
D. Both 'A' and 'C'
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both 'A' and 'C'
by

Related questions

Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Description : Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 8 month

Last Answer : C. 6 months

What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced after clinical response occurs C. The patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Description : What is true of DOTS strategy for treatment of tuberculosis: A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase B. The dose of antitubercular drugs is reduced ... patient himself is made responsible for administering antitubercular drugs D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It consists of an initial intensive phase and a later continuation phase

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide for 6 months B. Isoniazid + Thiacetazone + Rifampin for 2 months followed by isoniazid + thiacetazone for 6 months C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Description : According to the current WHO guidelines, new (untreated) sputum smear positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis are to be treated with the following regimen: A. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide ... D. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide during the initial 2 months

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin for 6 months with additional Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol/Streptomycin during the initial 2 months

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Last Answer : . Started immediately

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patients C. Adult contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Description : Chemoprophylaxis for tuberculosis is recommended in the following category of subjects except: A. Mantoux positive child in the family of a tuberculosis patient B. All Mantoux positive adult ... tuberculosis patient who show Mantoux conversion D. HIV positive subjects with a positive Mantoux test

Last Answer : B. All Mantoux positive adult contacts of tubercular patient

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Description : A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended for: A. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy B. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy D. None of the above

Last Answer : C. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Eradication of H.pylori along with gastric antisecretory drugs affords the following benefit(s): A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster ulcer healing C. Reduced chance of ulcer relapse D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary and multibacillary cases C. No resistance to rifampin develops despite its use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Description : The following is true of multidrug therapy of leprosy except: A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases B. Relapse rate is very low in both paucibacillary ... use once a month D. Prevalence of lepra reaction is not higher compared to dapsone monotherapy

Last Answer : A. It has been highly successful in paucibacillary but not in multibacillary cases

First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : First line antitubercular drugs include the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin

Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Description : Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie ... who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Few papers have excited as much interest as that by Askanazi, Kinney, and co-workers, which demonstrated that glucose calories given to patients with severe respiratory ... the caloric requirement and glucose for the remainder, without much fear of excessive CO 2 production

In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of action C. It activates dopamine D2 receptors, with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Description : In the treatment of parkinsonism, bromocriptine differs from levodopa in the following respects except: A. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite B. It has a longer duration of ... with little/antagonistic action on D1 receptors D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effect

Last Answer : D. It does not produce behavioral/psychiatric side effects

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count more than 400/μl C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Description : Anti-HIV drug therapy is recommended in the following category of HIV exposed subjects: A. HIV positive symptomatic patients with opportunistic infections B. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count ... asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl D. Both 'A' and 'C

Last Answer : C. HIV positive asymptomatic subjects with CD4 cell count less than 200/μl

Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Description : Which of the following antitubercular drugs is not hepatotoxic: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

Last Answer : D. Ethambutol

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Description : The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in the treatment of tuberculosis is: A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs B. To obtain bactericidal effect C. To broaden the spectrum of activity D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

Last Answer : A. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs

Gentamicin differs from streptomycin in that: A. It is less nephrotoxic B. It is used for pseudomonas infections C. It is not effective in tuberculosis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Gentamicin differs from streptomycin in that: A. It is less nephrotoxic B. It is used for pseudomonas infections C. It is not effective in tuberculosis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases B. Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD C. Their use predisposes to respiratory infections D. Both 'A' and 'B

Last Answer : A. They are indicated in COPD only for severe/ advanced cases

The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in the following respect(s): A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration B. It has higher K+ ion concentration C. It has no basic salt D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : A. It has lower Na+ ion and glucose concentration

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Description : In a patient of pulmonary tuberculosis, pyrazinamide is most active on the following subpopulation of tubercle bacilli: A. Rapidly multiplying bacilli located on cavity walls B. Slow ... showing inflammatory response C. Intermittently multiplying bacilli within caseous material D. Dormant bacilli

Last Answer : B. Slow growing bacilli within macrophages and at sites showing inflammatory response

A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following measures would you recommend: A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine B. Substitute isoniazid with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Description : A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis treated with rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide developed parasthesias, weakness, dizziness, ataxia and depressed tendon reflexes. Which of the following ... with thiacetazone C. Substitute pyrazinamide with ethambutol D. Substitute rifampin with streptomycin

Last Answer : A. Temporarily discontinue isoniazid and add pyridoxine

Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Description : Radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice for the following category of thyrotoxic patients: A. Children B. Young adults with recent oneset of Grave’s disease C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : C. Elderly patients with ischaemic heart disease

The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Description : The primary reason for not using ethionamide as a first line antitubercular drug is: A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis B. It is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal C. Ethionamide resistance has become widespread D. It has to be given by injection

Last Answer : A. It produces gastrointestinal intolerance and hepatitis

Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s): A. It is more active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. It is active against Klebsiella as well C. It is acid resistant D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s): A. It is more active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. It is active against Klebsiella as well C. It is acid resistant D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are corre

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect(s): A. It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia B. It has no α adrenergic blocking activity C. It has little antivagal action D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Description : Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Description : Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in the following features except: A. It is dose to dose more potent B. Its oral absorption is not affected by food in stomach C. It acts more rapidly D. It has longer duration of action

Last Answer : D. Lisinopri

he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Description : he multidrug therapy of leprosy is superior to monotherapy on the following account(s): A. It prevents emergence of dapsone resistance B. It is effective in cases with primary dapsone resistance C. It shortens the total duration of drug therapy and improves compliance D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Description : According to current guidelines, previously untreated symptomatic HIV patients should be treated with: A. Zidovudine alone B. Zidovudine + zalcitabine C. Zidovudine + indinavir D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibito

Last Answer : D. Any two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + one protease inhibitor

Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Description : Which first line antitubercular drug is only tuberculostatic and not tuberculocidal: A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

Last Answer : C. Ethambutol

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy