Description : CHOOSE THE MOST APPROPRIATE RESPONSE 23.1 Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker: A. Succinylcholine B. Vecuronium C. Decamethonium D. Dantrolene sodium
Last Answer : B. Vecuronium
Description : The following is a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts as a central α2 adrenergic agonist: A. Tizanidine B. Brimonidine C. Chlormezanone D. Quinine
Last Answer : A. Tizanidine
Description : Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by: A. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings B. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes C. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre
Last Answer : D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre
Description : Centchroman is: A. An oral contraceptive for women B. An oral contraceptive for men C. A mast cell stabilizer D. A centrally acting muscle relaxant
Last Answer : A. An oral contraceptive for women
Description : Select the skeletal muscle relaxant that is commonly used for endotracheal intubation despite causing histamine release, K+ efflux from muscles and cardiovascular changes: A. Pipecuroniun B. Succinylcholine C. Pancuronium D. Cisatracurium
Last Answer : B. Succinylcholine
Description : Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy
Last Answer : A. Balanced anaesthesia
Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert
Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property
Description : Balanced General Anesthesia includes A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Loss of consciousness C. Analgesia D. All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic
Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic
Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action
Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use
Description : Choose the drug that has been found to be more selective for the ω1 subtype of BZD receptor, and produces hypnotic action but little antianxiety, muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant actions: A. Zopiclone B. Zolpidem C. Flumazenil D. Melatonin
Last Answer : B. Zolpidem
Description : Select the correct statement about benzodiazepines (BZDs): A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones B. Different BZDs exert the same degrees of hypnotic, anxiolytic and anticonvulsant ... at all neuronal sites D. The muscle relaxant action of BZDs is not blocked by flumazenil
Last Answer : A. All BZDs facilitate GABA mediated Cl¯ influx into neurones
Description : The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action: A. Ether B. Nitrous oxide C. Halothane D. Isoflurane
Last Answer : B. Nitrous oxide
Description : Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for: A. Deep intra-abdominal operation B. Tracheal intubation C. Tetanus D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Last Answer : C. Tetanus
Description : Select the muscle relaxant that is used to control spasticity associated with upper motor neurone paralysis: A. Vecuronium B. Succinylcholine C. Chlorzoxazone D. Baclofen
Last Answer : D. Baclofen
Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness
Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal
Last Answer : D. Laryngeal
Description : The following drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in mania and bipolar illness: A. Carbamazepine B. Carisoprodol C. Clomipramine D. Diethyl carbamazine
Last Answer : A. Carbamazepine
Description : Indicate the drug that is a slow acting low efficacy blood schizontocide that should not be used as a clinical curative: A. Proguanil B. Chloroquine C. Quinine D. Mefloquine
Last Answer : A. Proguanil
Description : In parkinsonian patients levodopa exerts the following effects except: A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility B. Decreases muscle tone C. Increases locomotor activity D. Inhibits muscle tremor
Last Answer : A. Reduces skeletal muscle contractility
Description : Metabolic rate of the following organ is not significantly affected by thyroxine: A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Skeletal muscle
Last Answer : A. Brain
Description : 7.3 Metabolic rate of the following organ is not significantly affected by thyroxine: A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Skeletal muscle
Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells
Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action
Description : Select the general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant action: A. Propofol B. Halothane C. Nitrous oxide D. Ether
Last Answer : B. Halothane
Description : ___________ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus a) ACE inhibitors b) High dose diuretics c) Centrally acting d) calcium channel blockers
Last Answer : c) Centrally acting
Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation
Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms
Description : When you take a muscle relaxant are you still able to make good use of the muscles?
Last Answer : answer:So-called muscle relaxants like Soma or Robaxin (there are many) act centrally to help relieve muscle spasm. In other words, they act on the brain (and possibly spinal cord) but not directly ... agent was curare, derived from the toxin used in South American blow darts to kill animal prey.
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle (a) Intestinal (b) Ureteric (c) Bronchial (d) Layngeal
Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain
Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine
Last Answer : D. Mefloquine
Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin
Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine
Description : The following is true of quinine: A. It has a longer elimination half-life than chloroquine B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria C. It is not active against P. vivax D. It should not be used along with sulfa-pyrimethamine
Last Answer : B. It is not to be used for prophylaxis of malaria
Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia
Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia
Description : Clinical applications of quinine include the following except: A. Uncomplicated chloroquine resistant malaria B. Cerebral malaria C. To induce abortion D. Nocturnal leg cramps
Last Answer : C. To induce abortion
Description : The drug of choice for cerebral malaria due to P. falciparum is: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine
Last Answer : A. Quinine
Description : Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P.falciparum as well as P. vivax: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Artesunate D. Proguanil
Last Answer : B. Mefloquine
Description : Which of the following drugs is suitable for treatment of malaria during pregnancy: A. Quinine B. Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine D. Primaquine
Last Answer : B. Chloroquine
Description : The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg ... 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days
Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days
Description : The following drug is a radical curative in vivax malaria: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine
Last Answer : B. Primaquine
Description : Chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria can be cured by the following drugs except: A. Quinine B. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine C. Primaquine D. Artesunate
Last Answer : C. Primaquine
Description : An adult male living in nonmalarious area has to visit an area where chloroquine resistant P. falciparum is prevalent. He is intolerant to mefloquine and his G6PD status is unknown. Select the ... you will prescribe for prophylaxis of malaria: A. Primaquine B. Doxycycline C. Amodiaquine D. Quinine
Last Answer : B. Doxycycline
Description : The following drug is a causal prophylactic for falciparum malaria and suppressive prophylactic for vivax malaria: A. Chloroquine B. Mepacrine C. Quinine D. Proguanil
Last Answer : D. Proguanil
Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression
Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia
Description : The site of action of d-tubocurarine is: A. Spinal internuncial neurone B. Motor nerve ending C. Muscle end-plate D. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre
Last Answer : C. Muscle end-plate
Description : Neuromuscular blocking drugs do not produce central actions because: A. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier B. Nicotinic receptors are not present in the brain C. They are sequestrated in the periphery by tight binding to the skeletal muscles D. They do not ionise at the brain pH
Last Answer : A. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier
Description : Glucocorticoids impair carbohydrate tolerance by: A. Promoting gluconeogenesis in liver B. Depressing glucose uptake into skeletal muscles C. Inhibiting insulin secretion D. Both A and B are correct
Last Answer : D. Both A and B are correct
Description : Guargum limits post-prandial glycaemia by: A. Inhibiting intestinal brush border α-glucosidases B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption from intestine C. Releasing incretins from the intestine D. Promoting uptake of glucose into skeletal muscles
Last Answer : B. Slowing carbohydrate absorption from intestin
Description : Which analgesic-antiinflammatory drug is more appropriate in musculo-skeletal disorder where pain is more prominent than inflammation: A. Ibuprofen B. Piroxicam C. Indomethacin D. Nimesulide
Last Answer : A. Ibuprofen
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach: A. Morphine sulfate B. Diclofenac sodium C. Hyoscine hydrobromide D. Quinine dihydrochloride
Last Answer : B. Diclofenac sodium