Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute manic episode D. Convulsions

Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests
as:
A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Acute manic episode
D. Convulsions
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock
by

Related questions

Which of the following MAO inhibitors is most likely to produce cheese reaction: A. Tranylcypromine B. Moclobemide C. Selegiline D. Clorgyline

Description : Which of the following MAO inhibitors is most likely to produce cheese reaction: A. Tranylcypromine B. Moclobemide C. Selegiline D. Clorgyline

Last Answer : A. Tranylcypromine

Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. b) Essential Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. c) Primary Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. d) Secondary Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for rapid control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid

Description : A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrolable behaviour and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug ... control of his symptoms: A. Lithium carbonate B. Phenobarbitone C. Haloperidol D. Valproic acid

Last Answer : C. Haloperidol

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route ... suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin

Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Description : Captopril produces greater fall in blood pressure in: A. Diuretic treated patients B. Patients having low plasma renin activity C. Sodium replete normotensive individuals D. Untreated CHF patient

Last Answer : A. Diuretic treated patients

In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine: A. Mydriasis B. Marked respiratory depression C. Cyanosis D. Fall in blood pressure

Description : In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be against the drug being morphine: A. Mydriasis B. Marked respiratory depression C. Cyanosis D. Fall in blood pressure

Last Answer : A. Mydriasis

Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements

Description : Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Description : Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible ... and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Last Answer : A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF

The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Description : The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : B. Doxapram

Strychnine produces convulsions by: A. Stimulating NMDA receptors B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

Description : Strychnine produces convulsions by: A. Stimulating NMDA receptors B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

Last Answer : D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Description : Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Last Answer : B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions

Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

Description : Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

Last Answer : A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy

The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation

Digoxin is contraindicated in: A. Angina pectoris patients B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Hypertensive patients D. Complete heart-block

Description : Digoxin is contraindicated in: A. Angina pectoris patients B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Hypertensive patients D. Complete heart-block

Last Answer : B. Ventricular tachycardia

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Description : Long term ACE inhibitor therapy may retard the progression of: A. Diabetic nephropathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Hypertensive nephropathy D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness, steady-state serum lithium concentration should be maintained between: A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L

Description : For therapeutic effect in manic depressive illness, steady-state serum lithium concentration should be maintained between: A. 0.2–0.4 mEq/L B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L C. 1.0–1.3 mEq/L D. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L

Last Answer : B. 0.5–0.8 mEq/L

Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely to be effective in: A. Anxiety B. Major depression C. Schizophrenia D. Manic-depressive illness

Description : Selective inhibition of conditioned avoidance response in animals by a drug indicates that the drug is likely to be effective in: A. Anxiety B. Major depression C. Schizophrenia D. Manic-depressive illness

Last Answer : C. Schizophrenia

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Description : A patient has an episode of hematemesis following streptokinase infused for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in controlling the bleeding episode: A. Vitamin K B. Noradrenaline C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid D. Rutin

Last Answer : C. Epsilon aminocaproic acid

A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Last Answer : C. 16 hours

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

How do you deal with someone having a manic episode all over Facebook?

Description : How do you deal with someone having a manic episode all over Facebook?

Last Answer : answer:If I still had contact information for the former friend (girl’s mom), I would contact her and let her know what’s been going on. Just that I was concerned and thought she should know. Then step away. Next, I would delete my Facebook account — but that’s just me. ;^)

A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position. b. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG c. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position.

A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position

Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Description : Choose the correct statement about moclobemide: A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action B. Patients taking it need to be cautioned not to consume tyramine rich food C. It is contraindicated in elderly patients D. It produces anticholinergic side effect

Last Answer : A. It is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A with short duration of action

The following is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor: A. Bupropion B. Entacapone C. Moclobemide D. Selegiline

Description : The following is a reversible and selective MAO-A inhibitor: A. Bupropion B. Entacapone C. Moclobemide D. Selegiline

Last Answer : C. Moclobemide

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline B. Clorgyline C. Moclobemide D. Tranylcypromine

Description : Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline B. Clorgyline C. Moclobemide D. Tranylcypromine

Last Answer : A. Selegiline

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Description : The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

The principal process which terminates the action of noradrenaline released from adrenergic nerve ending is: A. Degradation by MAO B. Methylation by COMT C. Axonal uptake D. Extraneuronal uptake

Description : The principal process which terminates the action of noradrenaline released from adrenergic nerve ending is: A. Degradation by MAO B. Methylation by COMT C. Axonal uptake D. Extraneuronal uptake

Last Answer : C. Axonal uptake

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. By a nonexocytotic process

Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients with low blood pressure C. Its action lasts less than 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Description : Use of adenosine for terminating an episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia has the following advantages except: A. It does not produce any side effect B. It can be given to patients ... 1 min after bolus intravenous injection D. It is effective in patients not responding to verapamil

Last Answer : A. It does not produce any side effect

A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to (a) Concomitant use of antacids (b) Fods containing tyramine (c) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over – the – counter decongestants

Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Description : The following allergic drug reaction is caused by circulating antibodies: A. Serum sickness B. Anaphylactic shock C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Angioedema

Last Answer : A. Serum sickness

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Description : 63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Last Answer : B. Tell the client that herbal supplements have no proven therapeutic effects

The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia

Description : The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia

Last Answer : A. They are more efficacious

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct