Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy B. Tetanus C. Febrile convulsions D. Cardiac catheterization

Diazepam is indicated in the following conditions
except:
A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy
B. Tetanus
C. Febrile convulsions
D. Cardiac catheterization
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) epilepsy
by

Related questions

The following is true of topiramate except: A. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug B. It inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase C. It is used as add-on therapy in refractory partial seizures D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures

Description : The following is true of topiramate except: A. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug B. It inhibits the enzyme carbonic anhydrase C. It is used as add-on therapy in refractory partial seizures D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures

Last Answer : D. It is not effective in generalized tonic-clonic seizures

Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures: A. Ethosuccimide B. Sodium valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin

Description : Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures: A. Ethosuccimide B. Sodium valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Sodium valproate

A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and do not give any anticonvulsant drug B. Continuous phenobarbitone prophylaxis till the age of 10 years C. Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Description : A 3-year-old boy gets seizures whenever he develops fever. Which is the most appropriate strategy so that he does not develop febrile convulsions: A. Treat fever with paracetamol and ... Continuous diazepam prophylaxis for 3 years D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

Last Answer : D. Intermittent diazepam prophylaxis started at the onset of fever

A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious with a generalized tonic clonic seizure and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which of the following could be used to reverse the effects of the lorazepam? A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate

Description : A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious ... A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate 

Last Answer : B. Flumazenil 

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Description : he antiepileptic drug which suppresses maximal electroshock as well as kindled seizures, raises pentylenetetrazol threshold and is effective in both generalized tonic-clonic as well as absence seizures is: A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Sodium valproate D. Ethosuximide

Last Answer : C. Sodium valproate

The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate

Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam

A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Description : A combination of two or more antiepileptic drugs is used: A. Routinely in all types of epilepsy B. In all cases of complex partial seizures C. In all cases of secondarily generalized seizures D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Last Answer : D. Only when monotherapy with first/second choice drugs fails

Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for: A. Deep intra-abdominal operation B. Tracheal intubation C. Tetanus D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Description : Diazepam is used as a muscle relaxant for: A. Deep intra-abdominal operation B. Tracheal intubation C. Tetanus D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Last Answer : C. Tetanus

Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Last Answer : C. Ketamine

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Description : Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism

Last Answer : B. Stroke due to cerebral thrombosis

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

Thyroxine therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Euthyroid status with raised TSH level B. Diffuse nontoxic goiter C. Nonfunctional thyroid nodule D. Benign functioning thyroid nodule

Description : Thyroxine therapy is indicated in the following conditions except: A. Euthyroid status with raised TSH level B. Diffuse nontoxic goiter C. Nonfunctional thyroid nodule D. Benign functioning thyroid nodule

Last Answer : C. Nonfunctional thyroid nodule

Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : D. Polycystic ovaries

16.16 Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Description : 16.16 Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women D. Polycystic ovaries

Last Answer : D. Polycystic ovaries

Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

Description : Drugs effective in bipolar illness include the following except: A. Olanzapine B. Diazepam C. Sodium valproate D. Lamotrigine

Last Answer : B. Diazepam

The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Cardiac catheterization?

Description : Cardiac catheterization?

Last Answer : DefinitionCardiac catheterization involves passing a thin flexible tube (catheter) into the right or left side of the heart, usually from the groin or the arm.Alternative NamesCatheterization - cardiac; ... is in place, your doctor may:Collect blood samples from the heartMeasure pressure and bloo

Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Description : Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Last Answer : A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold

The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Description : The following drug has been used to stimulate respiratory and vasomotor centres as an expedient measure, because it has the least propensity to induce convulsions: A. Pentylenetetrazole B. Doxapram C. Bicuculline D. Amphetamine

Last Answer : B. Doxapram

Strychnine produces convulsions by: A. Stimulating NMDA receptors B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

Description : Strychnine produces convulsions by: A. Stimulating NMDA receptors B. Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate C. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

Last Answer : D. Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute manic episode D. Convulsions

Description : Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute manic episode D. Convulsions

Last Answer : A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock

Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Description : Carbamazepine possesses the following property not shared by phenytoin: A. Modification of maximal electroshock seizures B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions C. Suppression of complex partial seizures D. Amelioration of trigeminal neuralgia

Last Answer : B. Raising threshold for pentylenetetrazol convulsions

Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Description : Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Last Answer : B. Partial seizures

Clomiphene citrate is indicated for the following condition/conditions: A. Female infertility due to anovular cycles B. Male infertility due to oligozoospermia C. Endometriosis D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Description : Clomiphene citrate is indicated for the following condition/conditions: A. Female infertility due to anovular cycles B. Male infertility due to oligozoospermia C. Endometriosis D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B'

Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Description : Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Last Answer : B. Discoid lupus erythematosus

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Description : Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism ... Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Last Answer : C. Cardiac output

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium

Description : Diabetic and other types of neuropathic pain often responds to: A. Chlorpromazine B. Diazepam C. Imipramine D. Lithium

Last Answer : C. Imipramine

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Description : Select the drug which should not be used to treat neurotic anxiety and tension syndromes despite having antianxiety action: A. Buspirone B. Chlorpromazine C. Diazepam D. Alprazolam

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

Description : The preferred drug for status epilepticus is: A. Intravenous diazepam B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone D. Rectal diazepam

Last Answer : A. Intravenous diazepam