A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to (a) Concomitant use of antacids (b) Fods containing tyramine (c) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over – the – counter decongestants

A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to (a) Concomitant use of antacids (b) Fods containing tyramine (c) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over – the – counter decongestants
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Ans: C
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Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril

Last Answer : Ans: A

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil

Description : A drug lacking vasodilator properties that is useful in angina is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Metoprolol (c) NIfedipine (d) Nitroglycerin (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: B

Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues little myocardial depression and hypotension (c) It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: B

Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol

Description : Maximal medical therapy for treating angina pectoris is represented by which of the following choices? (a) Diltiazem, verapamil, nitroglycerin (b) Atenolol, isoproterenol, diltiazem (c) Verapamil, nifedipine, propranolol (d) Isosorbide, atenolol, diltiazem (e) Nitroglycerin, isosorbide, atenolol

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol

Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin

Description : Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin

Last Answer : Ans: B

A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: E

For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Last Answer : Ans: B

A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Description : A 54-year-old woman with severe hypercholesterolemia is to be treated with a combination of niacin and atorvastatin. With this drug combination, it is important that the patient be monitored closely for signs of (a) Agranulocytosis (b) Gallstones (c) Lactic acidosis (d) Myopathy (e) Thyrotoxicosis

Last Answer : Ans: D

Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug: A. Nifedipine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril

Last Answer : A. Nifedipine

An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Description : An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg daily. Even after a month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was added. After 2 hours of taking the ... likely other drug given to him is: A. Atenolol B. Captopril C. Methyldopa D. Amlodipine

Last Answer : B. Captopril

When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above

Description : A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Description : If a fibrinolytic drug is used for treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse drug effect that is most likely to occur is (a) Acute renal failure (b) Development of antiplatelet antibodies (c) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction (d) Hemorrhagic stroke (e) Neutropenia

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Description : The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Nifedipine D. Captopril

Last Answer : A. Clonidine

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as rapidly as possible: A. Sublingual nifedipine B. Intramuscular injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Description : A semiconscious patient of haemorrhagic cerebral stroke has been brought to the emergency. His blood pressure is 240/120 mmHg. Select the procedure to lower his blood pressure as ... injection of hydralazine C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside D. Intravenous injection of clonidin

Last Answer : C. Intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprussid

Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension or circulatolry collapse (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Ans: E

The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Description : The following procedure for rapid lowering of BP in hypertensive urgency/emergency has been abandoned: A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine B. Intravenous glyceryl trinitrate infusion C. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside infusion D. Intravenous esmolol injection

Last Answer : A. Sublingual/oral nifedipine

63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Description : 63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Last Answer : B. Tell the client that herbal supplements have no proven therapeutic effects

Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above

Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Isosorbide dinitrate (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Erythrityl tetranitrate

Description : Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Isosorbide dinitrate (c) Isosorbide mononitrate (d) Erythrityl tetranitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (d) Slows the depolarization phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol

Last Answer : Ans: B

In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Description : In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Last Answer : Ans: D

After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (b) Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid

Description : After being counseled about lifestyle and dietary changes, the patient was started on atorvastatin. During his treatment with atorvastatin, it is important to routinely monitor serum concentrations of (a) ... Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase (c) Platelets (d) Red blood cells (e) Uric acid

Last Answer : Ans: D

If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Description : If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate

Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of (a) Stick sinus syndrome (b) Auricular extrasystoles (c) Auricular fibrillation (d) Ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged

Description : A patient on oral anticoagulant therapy is commenced on sulfamethoxazoletrimethoprim, double-strength twice daily. One may expect to see the international normalized ratio (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged

Last Answer : Ans: A

A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2–3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal INR of 2.5–3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2–3

Description : A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2-3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy ... of 2.5-3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2-3

Last Answer : Ans: A

Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Description : Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Last Answer : Ans: A

Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Last Answer : Ans: E

Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Last Answer : Ans: B

What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above

Description : What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin

Description : Which of the following is the drug of choice for management of cardiac arrhythmias that occur in digitalis toxicity? (a) Amiodarone (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Sotalol (e) Prazosin

Last Answer : Ans: B

A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, a. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously. b.Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants. c. Curettage and dressing of the defect. d. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure. e. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Description : A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, a. Further review and reassurance since it will most ... Excision of the fistula and surgical closure. e. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Last Answer : d. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure.

A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by,** A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Description : A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by,** A. Further review and reassurance since it will most ... . Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.

Last Answer : D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure

If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Description : If therapy with multiple drugs causes induction of drug metabolism in your asthma patient, it will (a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum ... soluble cytoplasmic fraction (d) Require 3-4 months to reach completion (e) Be irreversible

Last Answer : Ans: A

Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Last Answer : Ans: C

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other’s side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in the stomach (b) Side effects include heartburn, flatulence, and sweating (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin

Description : Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in ... (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin

Last Answer : Ans: B

The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone

Description : The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone

Last Answer : Ans: A