The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically
as antidepressants because of their:
A. Low antidepressant efficacy
B. Higher toxicity
C. Potential to interact with many foods and
drugs
D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
by

Related questions

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Description : Venlafaxine differs from standard tricyclic antidepressants in that it: A. Does not inhibit 5-HT reuptake B. Does not inhibit noradrenaline reuptake C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property D. Has lower antidepressant efficacy

Last Answer : C. Does not have anticholinergic or antiadrenergic property

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ? (a) ACE inhibitors (b) Alpha-receptor blockers (c) Arteriolar dilators (d) ß1 – selective receptor blockers (e) Nonselective ß - blockers

Description : Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ? (a) ACE inhibitors (b) Alpha-receptor blockers (c) Arteriolar dilators (d) ß1 – selective receptor blockers (e) Nonselective ß - blockers

Last Answer : Ans: B

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

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Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Which of the following MAO inhibitors is most likely to produce cheese reaction: A. Tranylcypromine B. Moclobemide C. Selegiline D. Clorgyline

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Last Answer : A. Tranylcypromine

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. By a nonexocytotic process

Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Description : Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using: A. Antihypertensive drugs B. Levodopa C. Lithium carbonate D. MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Lithium carbonate

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious

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Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective

The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above

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Last Answer : C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists

Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

The following category of drugs is not indicated in early/mild cases of Parkinson's disease: A. Central anticholinergic B. MAO-B inhibitor C. COMT inhibitor D. Nonergoline dopaminergic agonist

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Last Answer : C. COMT inhibitor

The dose of the following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter: A. Oral contraceptives B. Antiepileptics C. Antidepressants D. Oral anticoagulants

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Last Answer : D. Oral anticoagulants

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

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Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

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Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

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Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

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Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

If you were/are clinically depressed, would you decide to take antidepressants?

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Last Answer : answer:They worked well for me, when I needed them. No, I don’t think they “take away your soul.” If someone feels that way, they’re definitely on the wrong drug.

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Clozapine is considered to be an atypical neuroleptic because: A. It has weak antidopaminergic action but high antipsychotic efficacy B. Its side effect profile is different from that of chlorpromazine C. It is not a phenothiazine derivative D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Description :  Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors in that they: A. Are antiinflammatory but not analgesic B. Donot bring down fever C. Have no renal effects D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Last Answer : D. Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis C. It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs

Description : Phenylbutazone should be used only in patients not responding to other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) because: A. It has lower antiinflammatory efficacy than other NSAIDs B. It has potential ... It has weak analgesic action D. It alters the protein binding and metabolism of many drugs

Last Answer : B. It has potential to cause agranulocytosis

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

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Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Description : Currently, the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for the following psychiatric disorder/disorders: A. Phobias B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Description : Paraaminosalicylic acid is a second line antitubercular drug because of the following feature(s): A. Low antitubercular efficacy B. Frequent side effects C. Bulky daily dose D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Description : Hydralazine is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive B. Effective doses cause marked ... mechanisms D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure

Last Answer : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms

Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Description : Though bromocriptine acts directly on dopamine receptors, it is used in parkinsonism only as a supplement to levodopa because: A. It has low efficacy B. It produces marked dyskinesias C. ... its effective doses produce intolerable side effects D. Its therapeutic effect takes long time to develop

Last Answer : C. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable side effect

Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Description : Semisynthetic penicillins developed so far have overcome the following drawbacks of benzylpenicillin except: A. Lack of efficacy against gram negative bacilli B. Susceptibility to bacterial penicillinase C. Inactivation by gastric acid D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Last Answer : D. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reactions

Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following: A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis D. All of the above

Description : Compared to H2 blockers, omeprazole affords the following: A. Faster relief of ulcer pain B. Faster healing of duodenal ulcer C. Higher efficacy in healing reflux esophagitis D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Description : Fluphenazine differs from chlorpromazine in the following respects except: A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy B. It is less sedative C. It is less likely to precipitate seizures in epileptics D. It causes more prominent extrapyramidal side effect

Last Answer : A. It has higher antipsychotic efficacy

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm

The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Description : The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity: A. Minocycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Tetracycline

Last Answer : D. Tetracycline

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings (a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane (b) By mobilizing Ca2+ (c) By a nonexocytotic process (d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings (a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane (b) By mobilizing Ca2+ (c) By a nonexocytotic process (d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : Ans: C

At the adrenergic synapse, the concentration of adrenaline in synaptic cleft: a. increased by cocaine which inhibit reuptake of adrenaline b. decreased by MAO (monoamine oxidase) - inhibitors c. controlled chiefly by the activity of the enzyme COMT d. increased by noradrenaline receptor blockers

Description : At the adrenergic synapse, the concentration of adrenaline in synaptic cleft: a. increased by cocaine which inhibit reuptake of adrenaline b. decreased by MAO (monoamine oxidase) - inhibitors c. controlled chiefly by the activity of the enzyme COMT d. increased by noradrenaline receptor blockers

Last Answer : increased by cocaine which inhibit reuptake of adrenaline

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Description : Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings: A. By depolarizing the axonal membrane B. By mobilizing Ca2+ C. By a nonexocytotic process D. Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

Last Answer : C. By a nonexocytotic process