Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib

Choose the correct statement about cysteinyl leukotrienes (LT-C4/D4): A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction B. They produce sustained rise in blood pressure C. They are responsible for attracting and sequestrating neutrophils at the site of inflammation D. Their production is inhibited by rofecoxib
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. They produce long lasting bronchoconstriction
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Related questions

Leukotrienes: 1) Are formed from the cyclooxygenase pathway 2) Are synthesized by fibroblasts 3) Decrease vascular permeability 4) Leukotriene D4 has been identified as SRS-A which causes bronchial wall smooth muscle relaxation 5) Stimulate mucus secretion

Description : Leukotrienes: 1) Are formed from the cyclooxygenase pathway 2) Are synthesized by fibroblasts 3) Decrease vascular permeability 4) Leukotriene D4 has been identified as SRS-A which causes bronchial wall smooth muscle relaxation 5) Stimulate mucus secretion

Last Answer : Answers-5 Leukotrienes are synthesized by leucocytes.They are mediators of allergic reaction. They increase vascular permeability and attract neutrophils and eosinophils to inflammatory sites. ... stimulate mucus production, an important consideration in the pathophysiology of bronchial asthma.

Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Description : Choose the correct statement about magaldrate: A. It is a mixture of magnesium and aluminium hydroxides B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action C. Its acid neutralizing capacity is 2 m Eq/g D. It causes systemic alkalosis

Last Answer : B. It has a rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action

Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in the subjacent muscle and joint tissues upto a depth/distance of 10 cm from the site of application C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Description : Choose the correct statement about topical NSAID preparations: A. They produce high drug levels in the blood by avoiding hepatic first pass metabolism B. They produce high drug levels in ... a strong placebo effect D. Interindividual variability in clinical response to these preparations is minimal

Last Answer : C. They elicit symptomatic relief in soft tissue rheumatism mainly by a strong placebo effect

Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoid: A. Prostacyclin B. Platelet activating factor C. Leukotriene B4 D. Leukotriene C4/D4

Description : Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoid: A. Prostacyclin B. Platelet activating factor C. Leukotriene B4 D. Leukotriene C4/D4

Last Answer : D. Leukotriene C4/D4

Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Actions of bradykinin include the following except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Cardiac depression C. Increase in capillary permeability D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : B. Cardiac depression

Which of the following statements are true of oxidants? A. In addition to their pathophysiologic roles in inflammation, injury, and infection, oxidants also have physiologic roles. B. Oxidants may be generated from activated neutrophils and during reperfusion following a period of ischemia. C. The deleterious effects of oxidants include lipid peroxidation and cell membrane damage, oxidative damage to DNA, and inhibition of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthesis. D. The mechanism of ischemia-reperfusion injury involved the catalytic production of superoxide anion (O 2•) by the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of oxidants? A. In addition to their pathophysiologic roles in inflammation, injury, and infection, oxidants also have physiologic roles. B. Oxidants may ... involved the catalytic production of superoxide anion (O 2 ) by the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Oxidants are reactive oxygen metabolites that have both physiologic and pathophysiologic roles. As potent oxidizing agents, oxidants are involved in cytochrome P ... leukocyte infiltration and activation, causing further tissue damage by the release of cytotoxic proteases

Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzylpenicillin C. Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because: A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited ... multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : . Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

The isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is expressed constitutively at the following site: A. Gastric mucosa B. Neutrophils C. Blood platelets D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

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Last Answer : D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

A 60-year-old patient presented with anorexia, weakness, paresthesia and mental changes. His tongue was red, tendon reflexes were diminished, haemoglobin was 6 g% with large red cells and neutrophils had hypersegmented nuclei. Endoscopy revealed atrophic gastritis. Deficiency of which factor is likely to be responsible for his condition: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B12 C. Pyridoxine D. Riboflavin

Description : A 60-year-old patient presented with anorexia, weakness, paresthesia and mental changes. His tongue was red, tendon reflexes were diminished, haemoglobin was 6 g% with large red cells and neutrophils had ... be responsible for his condition: A. Folic acid B. Vitamin B12 C. Pyridoxine D. Riboflavin

Last Answer : B. Vitamin B12

Bronchodilators are useful in cough (a) Only when cough is non-productive (b) Only when cough is associated with thick sticky secretions (c) Only when reflex bronchoconstriction is associated (d) Irrespective of nature of cough or associated features Ans: C 51 The common and dose related side effect of salbutamol is (a) Rise in blood pressure (b) Muscle tremor (c) Hyperglycaemia (d) Central nervous system stimulation

Description : Bronchodilators are useful in cough (a) Only when cough is non-productive (b) Only when cough is associated with thick sticky secretions (c) Only when reflex bronchoconstriction is associated (d) ... Rise in blood pressure (b) Muscle tremor (c) Hyperglycaemia (d) Central nervous system stimulation

Last Answer : Ans: B

Choose the correct statement(s) about actions of insulin: A. It favours translocation of glucose transporters from intracellular site to the plasma membrane B. It enhances transcription of lipoprotein lipase in vascular endothelium C. It increases production of the enzyme glucokinase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about actions of insulin: A. It favours translocation of glucose transporters from intracellular site to the plasma membrane B. It enhances transcription of lipoprotein ... vascular endothelium C. It increases production of the enzyme glucokinase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion D. They can lower intraocular pressure

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Last Answer : D. They can lower intraocular pressure

The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of codeine into morphine C. Its altered form is responsible for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Description : The following is not true of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP2D6: A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol B. It is involved in demethylation of ... for poor capacity to hydroxylate many drugs including metoprolol D. It is inhibited by quinidine

Last Answer : A. It generates the hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl benzoquinone immine from paracetamol

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

Following mediators are involved in acute inflammation except (a) Histamine (b) Leukotrienes (c) Interferons (d) Bradykinin

Description : Following mediators are involved in acute inflammation except (a) Histamine (b) Leukotrienes (c) Interferons (d) Bradykinin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by (a) Cyclooxygenase 1 (b) Cyclooxygenase 2 (c) Glutathione – S – transferase (d) Lipoxygenase (e) Phospholipase A2

Description : Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from arachidonic acid by (a) ... 2 (c) Glutathione - S - transferase (d) Lipoxygenase (e) Phospholipase A2

Last Answer : Ans: B

Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute manic episode D. Convulsions

Description : Cheese reaction' in a MAO inhibited patient manifests as: A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock B. Hypertensive crisis C. Acute manic episode D. Convulsions

Last Answer : A. Precipitous fall in blood pressure and shock

The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are – (1) red blood cells (2) neutrophils (3) lymphocytes (4) platelets

Description : The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are – (1) red blood cells (2) neutrophils (3) lymphocytes (4) platelets

Last Answer : (3) lymphocytes Explanation: An antibody (Ab), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large Y-shaped protein produced by B-cells that is used by the immune system to identify and ... called antigens usually on the outside of an invading organism. This is called the antigen-antibody reaction.

The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are (1) red blood cells (2) neutrophils (3) lymphocytes (4) platelets

Description : The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are (1) red blood cells (2) neutrophils (3) lymphocytes (4) platelets

Last Answer : lymphocytes

nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above

Description : nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis

Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis

There are no preformed stores of the following autacoid/autacoids: A. Prostaglandins B. Leukotrienes C. Angiotensin II D. All of the above

Description : There are no preformed stores of the following autacoid/autacoids: A. Prostaglandins B. Leukotrienes C. Angiotensin II D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

TThe most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Description : The most important mechanism of antiinflammatory action of glucocorticoids is: A. Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation C. Antagonism of action of interleukins D. Suppression of complement function

Last Answer : B. Restriction of recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation

Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib

Description : Among the following, choose the NSAID with the highest COX-2 selectivity: A. Nimesulide B. Nabumetone C. Rofecoxib D. Celecoxib

Last Answer : C. Rofecoxib

Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Description : Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Last Answer : B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out tetracyclines C. Protein synthesizing apparatus of host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Mammalian cells are not inhibited by low concentrations of tetracyclines that inhibit sensitive microorganisms because: A. Host cells lack active transport mechanism for tetracyclines B. Host cells actively pump out ... host cells has low affinity for tetracyclines D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Description : Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because: A. They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action B. They are less likely to affect gastric emptying C. They are less likely to alter bowel movement D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them C. Tetanic nerve stimulation during partial depolarizing block produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Description : The following calcium channel blocker should not be used in patients with ischaemic heart disease: A. Verapamil sustained release tablet B. Amlodipine tablet C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule D. Nifedipine extended release tablet

Last Answer : C. Nifedipine soft geletin capsule

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate

Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Description : 16.17 Superactive GnRH agonists cause: A. Initial as well as sustained release of gonadotropins B. Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks C. Initial ... release after 1-2 weeks D. Initial as well as sustained inhibition of gonadotropin release

Last Answer : C. Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection

Description : The following adverse effect of corticosteroids is mainly due to their mineralocorticoid action: A. Osteoporosis B. Rise in blood pressure C. ‘Moon face’ D. Increased susceptibility to infection

Last Answer : B. Rise in blood pressure

Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because: A. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days B. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 days C. Regeneration of aspirin inhibited cyclooxygenase takes 5-7 days D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

Description : Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because: A. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days B. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 ... 5-7 days D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

Last Answer : D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles C. They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles

The cyclooxygenase isoenzymes COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that: A. They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis B. COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2 C. COX-2 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-1 D. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely

Description : The cyclooxygenase isoenzymes COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that: A. They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis B. COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2 C. COX-2 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-1 D. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely

Last Answer : D. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely

Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Description : Moderate amounts of alcohol produce the following effects except: A. Flushing B. Tachycardia C. Diuresis D. Rise in body temperature

Last Answer : D. Rise in body temperature

Cyclooxygenase-1 and –2 are responsible for (a) The synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonate (b) The synthesis of leukotrienes from arachidonate (c) The conversion of ATP to cAMP (d) The metabolic degradation of cAMP (e) The conversion of GTP to cGMP

Description : Cyclooxygenase-1 and –2 are responsible for (a) The synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonate (b) The synthesis of leukotrienes from arachidonate (c) The conversion of ATP to cAMP (d) The metabolic degradation of cAMP (e) The conversion of GTP to cGMP

Last Answer : Ans: A

Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Description : Intravenous injection of quinine produces: A. Rise in blood pressure B. Neuromuscular block C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypoglycaemia

Last Answer : D. Hypoglycaemia

Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Description : Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure: A. Amiodarone B. Lignocaine C. Esmolol D. Disopyramide

Last Answer : C. Esmolo

Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Description : Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Description : Which side effect of the oral contraceptive subsides after 3–4 cycles of continued use: A. Glucose intolerance B. Rise in blood pressure C. Headache D. Fluid retention

Last Answer : C. Headache

Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Description : Adverse consequences of excess mineralocorticoid action include the following except: A. Na+ and water retention B. Acidosis C. Aggravation of CHF associated myocardial fibrosis D. Rise in blood pressure

Last Answer : B. Acidosis