Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid
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ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Description : ystemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of: A. Exfoliative dermatitis B. Posterior uveitis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : C. Acute rheumatic feve

Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the healthy population. B. The presence of gallstones, regardless of the presence of symptoms, is an indication for cholecystectomy in a diabetes patient. C. Diabetes patients with gallstones and chronic biliary pain should be managed nonoperatively with chemical dissolution and/or lithotripsy because of severe complicating medical conditions and a high operative risk. D. The presence of diabetes and gallstones places the patient at high risk for pancreatic cancer. E. Diabetes patients with symptomatic gallstones should have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and g

Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer

Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease

Description : Systemic corticosteroid therapy is not used routinely and is reserved only for severe cases of (a) Exfoliative dermatitis (b) Posterior uveitis (c) Acute rheumatic fever (d) Hodgkin’s disease

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Description : The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine in ulcerative colitis is exerted by: A. Inhibitory action of the unabsorbed drug on the abnormal colonic flora B. Breakdown of the drug in ... locally C. Release of sulfapyridine having antibacterial property D. Systemic immunomodulatory action of the drug

Last Answer : B. Breakdown of the drug in colon to release 5-aminosalicylic acid which suppresses inflammation locally

Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Description : Choose the correct statement about paracetamol: A. It increases uric acid excretion B. It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin D. It stimulates cellular metabolism

Last Answer : C. In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin

Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Description : Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria can be prevented by combining it with a single dose of: A. Quinine B. Primaquine C. Tetracycline D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : D. Mefloquine

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Description : Choose the correct statement about amantadine: A. It is an antimetabolite used for viral infections B. It prevents penetration of the virus into the host cell C. It is used ... during an influenza A2 epidemic D. Concurrent administration of amantadine prevents antibody response to influenza vaccine

Last Answer : C. It is used to protect high risk subjects during an influenza A2 epidemic

Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Description : Selective inhibition of thromboxane A2 synthesis by low dose aspirin therapy might retard the progression of: A. Pregnancy induced hypertension B. Steroid induced hypertension C. Renal hypertension D. Malignant hypertension

Last Answer : A. Pregnancy induced hypertension

Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner 4) can be reduced with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure

Description : Which of the following is associated with Hyperuricaemia? 1) is usually due to an excess purine consumption 2) occurs in association with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia 3) in primary gout is inherited in ... with low dose aspirin therapy 5) can be treated with uricosuric drugs even in renal failure

Last Answer : Answers-2 Hyperuricaemia may be due to increased purine intake, urate production or reduced urate clearance, and is most commonly due to the latter. Therefore it can occur in association with enhanced ... . Many of the uricosuric drugs may be detrimental in renal failure and may not be effective.

The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Description : The following is true of raloxifene except: A. It acts as an estrogen agonist in bone B. It exerts estrogen antagonistic action on endometrium C. It increases risk of developing breast cancer D. It can induce/aggravate menopausal hot flushes

Last Answer : C. It has additional androgenic acitivity

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about the use of propranolol in anxiety: A. Being nonsedative, it is the drug of choice in chronic anxiety states B. It suppresses the psychological component of anxiety ... the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations D. Both B' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. It suppresses the autonomic manifestations of acutely stressful situations

Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Description : Choose the correct statement about lamotrigine: A. It is a dopaminergic agonist used in parkinsonism B. It acts by blocking NMDA-type of glutamate receptors C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug D. It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures, but worsens absence seizures

Last Answer : C. It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about ipratropium bromide: A. It preferentially dilates peripheral bronchioles B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol C. As metered dose inhaler it is used for terminating asthma attacks D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : B. It produces additional bronchodilatation when added to nebulized salbutamol

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics

Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias

An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Description : An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial treatment would be most appropriate: A. No antimicrobial treatment B. Metronidazole C. Norfloxacin D. Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : C. Norfloxacin

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Description : Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Last Answer : D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII

Description : Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII

Last Answer : A. Haemophilic disease

Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Description : Chloroquine is indicated in the following disorders except: A. Rheumatic fever B. Discoid lupus erythematosus C. Photogenic skin reactions D. Lepra reaction

Last Answer : B. Discoid lupus erythematosus

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever

Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Description : Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not justified in the following condition: A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold B. Thoroughly cleaned contaminated wound C. Rheumatic fever in a child of 10 years D. Catheterization of urethra in an elderly male

Last Answer : A. To prevent secondary infection in common cold

Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Description : Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. A fibric acid derivative C. Gugulipid D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Which of the following condition is non-suppurativesequelae of Streptococcus pyogenA- Acute rheumatic fever B- Acute glomerulonephritis C- Erythema nodosum D- All of these

Description : Which of the following condition is non-suppurativesequelae of Streptococcus pyogen A- Acute rheumatic fever B- Acute glomerulonephritis C- Erythema nodosum D- All of these

Last Answer : All of these

In which condition do you have to prescribe antibiotics prior to dental treatment: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis C. By pass D. Valve replacement E. Uncontrolled diabetes F. All of the above

Description : In which condition do you have to prescribe antibiotics prior to dental treatment: A. Rheumatic fever B. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis C. By pass D. Valve replacement E. Uncontrolled diabetes F. All of the above

Last Answer : F. All of the above

What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : What is true of acid control therapy with H2 blockers: A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers B. It checks bleeding in case of bleeding peptic ulcer C. It prevents gastroesophageal reflux D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : A. It generally heals duodenal ulcers faster than gastric ulcers

A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting thrombolytic therapy: A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 16 hours D. 24 hours

Last Answer : C. 16 hours

Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

Use of anticoagulants in acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces short-term mortality B. Prevents thrombus extension and subsequent attack C. Prevents venous thromboembolism D. All of the above

Description : Use of anticoagulants in acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces short-term mortality B. Prevents thrombus extension and subsequent attack C. Prevents venous thromboembolism D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Prevents venous thromboembolism

The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are incompletely absorbed after oral administration C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine

Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects

A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : D. Erythromycin

Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids: A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about anabolic steroids: A. They are testosterone congeners having anabolic but no androgenic activity B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity C. They are suitable for long-term therapy in children D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : B. They are androgens with relatively selective anabolic activity

Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by enlargement of thyroid gland C. Its long term use in Grave's disease leads to ‘thyroid escape’ D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Description : Choose the correct statement about carbimazole: A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therapy B. Control of thyrotoxic symptoms with carbimazole is accompanied by ... leads to thyroid escape' D. It mitigates thyrotoxic symptoms without lowering serum thyroxine levels

Last Answer : A. It induces improvement in thyrotoxic symptoms afer 1-4 weeks therap

The plasma half life of aspirin (along with salicylic acid released from it): A. Remains constant irrespective of dose B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose C. Is shorter for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose D. Can be shortened by acidifying urine

Description : The plasma half life of aspirin (along with salicylic acid released from it): A. Remains constant irrespective of dose B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic ... for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose D. Can be shortened by acidifying urine

Last Answer : B. Is longer for antiinflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose

Select the drug which reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease: A. Simvastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Colestipol (p. 577, 578) 43.1 4 3 . 1 D 43.2 4 3 . 2 C 43.3 4 3 . 3 A 43.4 4 3 . 4 A Ai

Description : Select the drug which reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease: A. Simvastatin B. Nicotinic acid C. Gemfibrozil D. Colestipol (

Last Answer : A. Simvastatin

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation