5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting: A. Cisplatin induced B. Radiotherapy induced C. Postoperative D. All of the above

5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of
vomiting:
A. Cisplatin induced
B. Radiotherapy induced
C. Postoperative
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Last Answer : B. Ondansetron

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Last Answer : C. Domperidone

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is: A. Histamine H1 receptor B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor C. Dopamine D2 receptor D. Opioid μ receptor

Last Answer : B. Serotonin

Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine

Description : Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine

Last Answer : B. Dexamethasone

A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Description : A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Last Answer : Ans: E

Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Description : Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Last Answer : Ans: C

3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis

The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Description : The anaesthetic action of thiopentone sodium is characterised by: A. Good muscle relaxation B. Poor analgesia C. Sensitization of heart to adrenaline D. No postoperative residual CNS depression

Last Answer : B. Poor analgesia

Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or blood pressure C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Description : Succinylcholine is the preferred muscle relaxant for tracheal intubation because: A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery B. It does not alter heart rate or ... C. It does not cause histamine release D. It does not produce postoperative muscle soreness

Last Answer : A. It produces rapid and complete paralysis of respiratory muscles with quick recovery

Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy C. Ventricular tachycardia in a child who has accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Description : Infusion of potassium chloride is indicated in digitalis toxicity when the manifestation(s) is/are: A. Vomiting, hyperapnoea and visual disturbance B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min ... accidentally ingested 10 digoxin tablets D. 2:1 A-V block with occasional ventricular extrasystoles

Last Answer : B. Pulsus bigeminus with heart rate 110/min in a patient on maintenance digoxin therapy

The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers C. It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

The following drug is effective in chlorpromazine induced parkinsonism: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Bromocriptine D. Levodopa + carbidopa

Description : The following drug is effective in chlorpromazine induced parkinsonism: A. Trihexyphenidyl B. Selegiline C. Bromocriptine D. Levodopa + carbidopa

Last Answer : A. Trihexyphenidyl

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell– cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin) Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific. c) Alkylating agents (cisplatin) Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Description : Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell- cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell-cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics ( ... agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Last Answer : a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).

The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria

Description : The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Loose motions C. Constipation D. Urticaria

Last Answer : B. Loose motions

A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to: A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis B. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

Description : A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to: A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis B. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

Last Answer : D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Description : A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal ... drug could have caused this condition: A. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline B. Furazolidone C. Loperamide D. Metronidazole

Last Answer : C. Loperamide

Apart from diarrhoea, oral rehydration solution has been employed in: A. Severe vomiting B. Burn cases C. Heat stroke D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Description : Apart from diarrhoea, oral rehydration solution has been employed in: A. Severe vomiting B. Burn cases C. Heat stroke D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Choose the phenothiazine compound which has selective labyrinthine suppressant action, is used for vomiting and vertigo, but not in schizophrenia: A. Triflupromazine B. Prochlorperazine C. Trifluoperazine D. Thioridazine

Description : Choose the phenothiazine compound which has selective labyrinthine suppressant action, is used for vomiting and vertigo, but not in schizophrenia: A. Triflupromazine B. Prochlorperazine C. Trifluoperazine D. Thioridazine

Last Answer : B. Prochlorperazine

Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Description : Chlorpromazine and its congeners suppress vomiting of following etiologies except: A. Motion sickness B. Radiation sickness C. Postanaesthetic D. Uremic

Last Answer : A. Motion sickness

Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Description : Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Last Answer : B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses

Chlorpromazine is ineffective in vomiting due to: A. Motion sickness B. Morning sickness C. Digoxin therapy D. Gastritis

Description : Chlorpromazine is ineffective in vomiting due to: A. Motion sickness B. Morning sickness C. Digoxin therapy D. Gastritis

Last Answer : A. Motion sickness

The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Description : The following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimised by combining it with carbidopa: A. Involuntary movements B. Nausea and vomiting C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. ‘On-off ’ effect

Last Answer : A. Involuntary movements

Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Description : Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of parkinsonism: A. Inhibits development of involuntary movements B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect’ C. Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities D. Accentuates nausea and vomiting

Last Answer : B. Minimises ‘on-off ’ effect

Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Description : Which of the following adverse effects of levodopa has a delayed onset and increases in severity with continued therapy: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Postural hypotension C. Cardiac arrhythmia D. Abnormal movements

Last Answer : D. Abnormal movements

The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension

Description : The most common and important undesirable effect of injectable contraceptive depot medroxyprogesterone acetate is: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding C. Venous thrombosis D. Hypertension

Last Answer : B. Disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding

16.11 Bromocriptine causes the following: A. Prolactin release B. Vomiting C. Uterine contraction D. Impotence

Description : 16.11 Bromocriptine causes the following: A. Prolactin release B. Vomiting C. Uterine contraction D. Impotence

Last Answer : B. Vomiting

The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Description : The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor

Last Answer : Ans: B

A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Septic induced abortion. b) Twin pregnancy. c) Gestational trophoblastic disease. d) Ectopic pregnancy. e) Fibroid uterus.

Description : A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus. The ... Twin pregnancy. c) Gestational trophoblastic disease. d) Ectopic pregnancy. e) Fibroid uterus.

Last Answer : The answer is most likely (a) a septic abortion, because the young lady is presenting with symptoms of a serious uterine infection that is discoloring her normal uterine disharge due to the presence ... or a passige of vesicles alongside the absence of a fetus on the ultrasound, hence the abortion.

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Hypomagnesaemia may be caused by which of the following drugs? 1) Aminophylline 2) Cisplatin 3) Co-trimoxazole 4) Digoxin 5) Amitriptyline

Description : Hypomagnesaemia may be caused by which of the following drugs? 1) Aminophylline 2) Cisplatin 3) Co-trimoxazole 4) Digoxin 5) Amitriptyline

Last Answer : Answers-2 Thiazide diuretics (not mentioned here) are a common cause of reduced serum magnesium. Cisplatin is a well recognised cause of hypomagnesaemia.

All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy

Description : All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy

Last Answer : Ans: D

Antidote for lead poisoning is (a) nickel (b) cisplatin (c) white of egg (d) EDTA

Description : Antidote for lead poisoning is (a) nickel (b) cisplatin (c) white of egg (d) EDTA

Last Answer : Ans:(d)

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because: A. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days B. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 days C. Regeneration of aspirin inhibited cyclooxygenase takes 5-7 days D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

Description : Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because: A. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days B. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 ... 5-7 days D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

Last Answer : D. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days

The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is (a) Methysergide (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ketanserin (d) Ondansetron

Description : The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is (a) Methysergide (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ketanserin (d) Ondansetron

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Description : The following is true of abciximab except: A. It is a monoclonal antibody against GPIIb/IIIa B. It inhibits platelet aggregation induced by a variety of platelet agonists C. It is antigenic D. It is used to reduce the risk of restenosis in patients undergoing PTCA

Last Answer : C. It is antigenic

The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Description : The following is true of clopidogrel except: A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks D. It is a prodrug

Last Answer : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Description : Choose the correct statement about amiloride: A. It antagonises the action of aldosterone B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus C. It increases calcium loss in urine D. It is dose to dose less potent than triamterene

Last Answer : B. It can be used to treat lithium induced diabetes insipidus

A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Description : A woman in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg. Select the most appropriate antihypertensive drug for her: A. Furosemide B. Methyldopa C. Propranolol D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Methyldopa

Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Description : Milrinone is best used: A. In a patient of mild CHF B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF C. For long-term maintenance therapy of CHF D. To suppress digitalis induced arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. As an additional drug alongwith conventional therapy to tide over crisis in refractory CHF