All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy

All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy
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In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol (b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin (c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin

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Last Answer : Ans: C

A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h

Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h

Last Answer : Ans: A

A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 mg orally every 4 hours (c) Give alternating doses of aspirin and acetaminophen every 4 hours (d) Withhold antipyretics, and use the fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Description : A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be (a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours (b) Give aspirin 650 ... fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy (e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever

Last Answer : Ans: D

A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day’s duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this patient appears to have atypical pneumonia. You should initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin

Description : A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day's duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this ... initiate treatment with (a) Cefazolin (b) Clindamycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Trovafloxacin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Description : Beta - lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be ... ? (a) Ampicillin (b) Ceftriaxone (c) Clindamycin (d) Gentamicin (e) Piperacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Description : Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin? (a) Amikacin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Gentamicin (d) Meropenem (e) Spectinomycin

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturabance as toxic effect ? (a) Streptomycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Kanamycin (d) Sisomicin

Description : Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturabance as toxic effect ? (a) Streptomycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Kanamycin (d) Sisomicin

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol

Description : Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best (a) Erythromycin (b) Gentamicin (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol

Last Answer : Ans: D

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Description : All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except (a) Norfloxacin (b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Carbenicillin (e) Methenamine mandelate

Last Answer : Ans: B

The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression

Description : The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is: A. Nephrotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression

Last Answer : A. Nephrotoxicity

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Description : Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics (a) Induce mutation in the bacteria (b) Promote conjugation among bacteria (c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ? (a) Mutation (b) Conjugation (c) Transduction (d) Transformation

Description : Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ? (a) Mutation (b) Conjugation (c) Transduction (d) Transformation

Last Answer : Ans: B

A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Superinfections are more common with (a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics (b) Short courses of antibiotics (c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines (d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Description : Superinfections are more common with (a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics (b) Short courses of antibiotics (c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines (d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : Ans: D

All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation (c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Description : All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be ... clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency (c) Less nursing time is required (d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved (c) They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Description : Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas (a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology (b) They should be ... therapy of diarrhoea (d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea

Last Answer : Ans: B

Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity

Last Answer : Ans: A

In ricket, the product of Ca x p (in mg/ 100 ml) in serum is below (A) 30 (B) 50 (C) 70 (D) 100

Description : In ricket, the product of Ca x p (in mg/ 100 ml) in serum is below (A) 30 (B) 50 (C) 70 (D) 100

Last Answer : Answer : A

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose. B. With normal renal function, this patient is likely to be volume overloaded. C. Proper fluid therapy would be unlikely to include potassium administration. D. Insulin administration will increase the potassium content of cells. E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of a patient with hyperglycemia and hyponatremia? A. The sodium concentration must be corrected by 5 mEq. per 100 mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood ... . E. Early in treatment adequate urine output is a reliable measure of adequate volume resuscitation.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: Each 100-mg. per 100 ml. elevation in blood glucose causes a fall in serum sodium concentration of approximately 2 mEq. per liter. Excess serum glucose ... correction of the patient's associated acidosis produce movement of potassium ions into the intracellular compartment

The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum antibiotic to a broad spectrum one if both are equally effective C. Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics

Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except (a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria (b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa (c) It produces an active metabolite (d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : Ans: B

Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Description : Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except (a) Long postantibiotic effect (b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes (c) MBC values close to MIC values (d) Slow development of resistance

Last Answer : Ans: B

Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system

Description : Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except (a) Gastrointestinal tract (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Nervous system

Last Answer : Ans: B

The primary objective for designing drugs that selectively inhibit COX – 2 is to (a) Decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity (b) Improve anti-inflammatory effectiveness (c) Lower the risk of gastrointestinal toxicity (d) Reduce the cost of treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (e) Selectively decrease thromboxane A2 without effects on other eicosanoids

Description : The primary objective for designing drugs that selectively inhibit COX - 2 is to (a) Decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity (b) Improve anti-inflammatory effectiveness (c) Lower the ... of treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (e) Selectively decrease thromboxane A2 without effects on other eicosanoids

Last Answer : Ans: C

Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle (b) Derived from the bark of yew trees (c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting (d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Description : Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate? (a) Acts mainly in the ... neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients (e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur

Last Answer : Ans: E

The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Description : The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called (a) Time-dependent killing (b) The post antibiotic effect (c) Clinical synergy (d) Concentration – dependent killing (e) Sequential blockade

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Description : Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false? (a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam (b) It causes maculopapular rashes (c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection (d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA (e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use

Last Answer : Ans: D

Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Description : Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red (c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if ... (d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic (e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential

Last Answer : Ans: A

A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight loss of greater than 10% over 2 to 4 months. B. Serum albumin of less than 3 gm. per 100 ml. in the hydrated state. C. Malnutrition as identified by global assessment. D. Serum transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Description : A major problem in nutritional support is identifying patients at risk. Recent studies suggest that these patients can be identified. Which of the following findings identify the patient at risk? A. Weight ... transferrin of less than 220 mg. per 100 ml. E. Functional impairment by history.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of these are at least partially correct. It is not clear whether weight loss of 10% or 15% is the required threshold, but it certainly is close. Serum ... the hands of an experienced observer is quite a reasonable way of approaching and identifying patients at risk

Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble (c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Description : Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ? (a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation (b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are ... in the urinary tract (d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections

Last Answer : Ans: B

An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin

Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for (a) Agranulocytosis patients (b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects (c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever (d) Treatment of anthrax

Last Answer : Ans: C

An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Description : An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is (a) Fewer allergic reactions (b) Prompter action (c) More sustained action (d) Greater solubility (e) There is no advantage

Last Answer : Ans: C

An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Description : An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its (a) Rapid onset of action (b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells (c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity (d) Very broad spectrum of activity (e) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: C

Serum sodium level rises in all of the following except (A) Renal failure (B) Prolonged steroid therapy (C) Aldosteronism (D) Dehydration

Description : Serum sodium level rises in all of the following except (A) Renal failure (B) Prolonged steroid therapy (C) Aldosteronism (D) Dehydration

Last Answer : Answer : A

All the following conditions produce a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except (A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy (B) Total lack of red meat in the diet (C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in the diet (D) Being a new born infant

Description : All the following conditions produce a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except (A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy (B) Total lack of red meat in the diet (C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in the diet (D) Being a new born infant

Last Answer : Answer : B

The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent suppression of gastric acid enhances efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Description : The following is true of anti-H.pylori therapy except: A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer B. Resistance to any single antimicrobial drug develops rapidly C. Concurrent ... efficacy of the regimen D. Colloidal bismuth directly inhibits H.pylori but has poor patient acceptability

Last Answer : A. It is indicated in all patients of peptic ulcer

The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferase (c) Lowered affinity of the bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis

Description : The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is (a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell (b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded ... bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol (d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis

Last Answer : Ans: B

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Normal fasting blood sugar level per 100 ml. of blood in man is - (1) 30 - 50 mg (2) 50 - 70 mg (3) 80 -100 mg (4) 120 -140 mg

Description : Normal fasting blood sugar level per 100 ml. of blood in man is - (1) 30 - 50 mg (2) 50 - 70 mg (3) 80 -100 mg (4) 120 -140 mg

Last Answer : (3) 80 -100 mg Explanation: The blood sugar concentration or blood glucose level is the amount of glucose (sugar) present in the blood of a human or animal. Glucose levels are usually lowest in the ... (termed the fasting level"), and rise after meals for an hour or two by a few millimolar.