Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the
following site(s):
A. Vagal afferents in intestines
B. Nucleus tractus solitarius
C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above

Description : The emetic action of morphine is due to (a) Irritation of gastrointestinal tract (b) Stimulation of cerebral cortex (c) Stimulation of medullary vomiting center (d) Stimulation of emetic chemoreceptor trigger zone (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron

Last Answer : C. Domperidone

5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting: A. Cisplatin induced B. Radiotherapy induced C. Postoperative D. All of the above

Description : 5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting: A. Cisplatin induced B. Radiotherapy induced C. Postoperative D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Description : The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

Last Answer : D. Cisplatin

Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Description : Choose the correct statement about ondansetron: A. It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomiting C. It is the most effective antiemetic for motion sickness D. It is not effective by oral route

Last Answer : B. It suppresses postoperative nausea and vomitin

The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Last Answer : B. Ondansetron

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Description : The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: A. Increasing vagal tone B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node D. All of the above

Description : Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: A. Increasing vagal tone B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Description : n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Last Answer : C. Tone of ventricular fibres

Actions of morphine include the following except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Miosis C. Antiemetic D. Postural hypotensio

Description : Actions of morphine include the following except: A. Vagal stimulation B. Miosis C. Antiemetic D. Postural hypotensio

Last Answer : C. Antiemetic

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during surgery C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Description : Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmented by the following except: A. Ketone bodies B. Glucagon C. Vagal stimulation D. Alfa adrenergic agonists

Last Answer : D. Alfa adrenergic agonist

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings

Bacteria become erythromycin resistant by the following mechanisms except: A. Becoming less permeable to erythromycin B. Elaborating an erythromycin esterase enzyme C. Elaborating a ‘protection protein’ which blocks the erythromycin binding site D. Altering the ribosomal binding site through a methylase enzyme

Description : Bacteria become erythromycin resistant by the following mechanisms except: A. Becoming less permeable to erythromycin B. Elaborating an erythromycin esterase enzyme C. Elaborating a protection ... the erythromycin binding site D. Altering the ribosomal binding site through a methylase enzyme

Last Answer : C. Elaborating a ‘protection protein’ which blocks the erythromycin binding site

Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ammonia in the gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Description : Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because: A. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria C. It reacts chemically with ... gut to prevent its diffusion into blood D. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver

Last Answer : B. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria

Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Description : Superinfections are more common with: A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics B. Short courses of antibiotics C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Last Answer : D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria

The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases tone and segmenting activity of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Description : The following is true of loperamide except: A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action B. It acts on the opioid receptors in the gut C. It increases ... of the intestines D. It inhibits intestinal secretion by binding to calmodulin in the mucosal cells

Last Answer : A. It is absorbed from intestines and exerts centrally mediated antidiarrhoeal action

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

Following acute haemorrhage, the following compensatory mechanisms occur: a. increased chemoreceptor discharge b. increased level of circulating angiotensin II c. vasoconstriction of renal efferent arterioles d. all above

Description : Following acute haemorrhage, the following compensatory mechanisms occur: a. increased chemoreceptor discharge b. increased level of circulating angiotensin II c. vasoconstriction of renal efferent arterioles d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action

Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action

Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Description : Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors: A. Famotidine B. Loxatidine C. Omeprazole D. Pirenzepine

Last Answer : C. Omeprazole

Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Description : Choose the correct statement about ticlopidine: A. It blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition C. It inhibits thromboxane A2 synthesis in platelets D. It does not prolong bleeding time

Last Answer : B. It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylylcyclase inhibition

yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Description : yocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated ... Na+ channels D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels

Last Answer : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels

The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Description : The following is not true of quinidine: A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

Last Answer : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels

Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Description : Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors: A. Ramipril B. Lovastatin C. Candesartan D. Sumatriptan

Last Answer : C. Candesartan

Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Description : Enalapril differs from captopril in that: A. It blocks angiotensin II receptors B. It does not produce cough as a side effect C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension D. It has a shorter duration of action

Last Answer : C. It is less liable to cause abrupt first dose hypotension

Select the correct statement about Naloxone: A. It equally blocks μ, κ and δ opioid receptors B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others C. It blocks κ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others D. It blocks δ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

Description : Select the correct statement about Naloxone: A. It equally blocks μ, κ and δ opioid receptors B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others C. It blocks κ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others D. It blocks δ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

Last Answer : B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is: A. Fluoxetine B. Amoxapine C. Desipramine D. Dothiepin

Description : The antidepressant which selectively blocks 5-hydroxytryptamine uptake is: A. Fluoxetine B. Amoxapine C. Desipramine D. Dothiepin

Last Answer : A. Fluoxetine

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Description : A progestin and an estrogen are combined in oral contraceptive pill because: A. The estrogen blocks the side effects of the progestin B. The progestin blocks the side effects of the estrogen C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation D. Both synergise to produce hostile cervical mucus

Last Answer : C. Both synergise to suppress ovulation

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days every month to cyclic estrogen replacement therapy during menopause is recommended because the progestin: A. Prevents osteoporosis B. Prevents irregular bleeding C. Blocks increased risk of endometrial carcinoma D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial infarction due to estrogen B. Blocks the increased risk of endometrial carcinoma due to estrogen C. Reverses vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Description : Addition of a progestin for 10-12 days each month to estrogen replacement therapy in menopausal women is recommended because the progestin: A. Blocks the increased risk of myocardial ... vulval atrophy occurring in postmenopausal women D. Enhances the metabolic benefits of estrogen treatment

Last Answer : The estrogen commonly used for hormone replacement therapy in menopausal women is: A. Ethinylestradiol B. Estradiol benzoate C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Conjugated estrogens

Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Description : Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme: A. Chlorpheniramine B. Promethazine C. Astemizole D. Loratadine

Last Answer : C. Astemizole

The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is (a) Methysergide (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ketanserin (d) Ondansetron

Description : The 5-HT antagonist that has antihypertensive property is (a) Methysergide (b) Cyproheptadine (c) Ketanserin (d) Ondansetron

Last Answer : Ans: C

A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Description : A patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy is vomiting frequently. A drug that might help in this situation is (a) Bromocriptine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ketanserin (d) Loratadine (e) Ondansetron

Last Answer : Ans: E

The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Description : The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist: A. Buspirone B. Ondansetron C. Sumatriptan D. α-methyl 5-HT

Last Answer : C. Sumatriptan

Secretion of gastrin is evoked by (A) Entry of food into stomach (B) Vagal stimulation (C) Lower aliphatic alcohols (D) All of these

Description : Secretion of gastrin is evoked by (A) Entry of food into stomach (B) Vagal stimulation (C) Lower aliphatic alcohols (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Insulin secretion: a. is inhibited by atropine b. is increased by vagal stimulation c. is inhibited by amino acids d. is stimulated by beta agonists

Description : Insulin secretion: a. is inhibited by atropine b. is increased by vagal stimulation c. is inhibited by amino acids d. is stimulated by beta agonists

Last Answer : is increased by vagal stimulation

Instead of depressing, morphine stimulates: A. Vasomotor centre B. Edinger Westphal nucleus C. Temperature regulating centre D. Cough centre

Description : Instead of depressing, morphine stimulates: A. Vasomotor centre B. Edinger Westphal nucleus C. Temperature regulating centre D. Cough centre

Last Answer : B. Edinger Westphal nucleus

The glucocorticoid receptor is located: A. On the outer surface of the cell membrane B. On the inner surface of the cell membrane C. In the cytoplasm D. Inside the nucleus

Description : The glucocorticoid receptor is located: A. On the outer surface of the cell membrane B. On the inner surface of the cell membrane C. In the cytoplasm D. Inside the nucleus

Last Answer : C. In the cytoplasm

Choose the correct statement(s) about actions of insulin: A. It favours translocation of glucose transporters from intracellular site to the plasma membrane B. It enhances transcription of lipoprotein lipase in vascular endothelium C. It increases production of the enzyme glucokinase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about actions of insulin: A. It favours translocation of glucose transporters from intracellular site to the plasma membrane B. It enhances transcription of lipoprotein ... vascular endothelium C. It increases production of the enzyme glucokinase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? A- It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes B- It blocks peptidyltransferase reaction on ribosomes C- It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes D- Not known with certainity

Description : What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? A- It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes B- It blocks peptidyltransferase reaction on ribosomes C- It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes D- Not known with certainity

Last Answer : It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes

What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? A- It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes B- It blocks peptidyltransferase reaction on ribosomes C- It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes D- Not known with certainity

Description : What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? A- It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes B- It blocks peptidyltransferase reaction on ribosomes C- It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes D- Not known with certainity

Last Answer : It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site of ribosomes

What do you think about following your impulses?

Description : What do you think about following your impulses?

Last Answer : I turn em loose. Screw it.