The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: A. Vincristine B. Chlorambucil C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. Cisplatin

The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic
potential:
A. Vincristine
B. Chlorambucil
C. 6-Mercaptopurine
D. Cisplatin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Cisplatin
by

Related questions

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Description : The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of ... than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : Select the drug which is used exclusively in organ transplantation and autoimmune diseases, but not in cancers: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Cyclosporine C. Methotrexate D. 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : B. Cyclosporine

Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Description : Select the cell cycle nonspecific antineoplastic drug: A. Vincristine B. Bleomycin C. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. 5-Fluorouracil

The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Description : The following antineoplastic drug is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest: A. Busulfan B. Vincristine C. Cytarabine D. Procarbazine

Last Answer : B. Vincristine

Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to the drug C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Biological response modifiers like GM-CSF are used in conjunction with anticancer drugs for the following purpose(s): A. To enhance antitumour activity of the drug B. To prevent hypersensitivity reactions to ... . To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppression D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : C. To hasten recovery from drug induced myelosuppressio

Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea

Description : Patients treated with the following anticancer drug are likely to develop a disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol: A. Dacarbazine B. Procarbazine C. Melphalan D. Hydroxyurea

Last Answer : B. Procarbazine

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Description : Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

The most important target of action of chlorambucil is: A. Myeloid tissue B. Lymphoid tissue C. Neural tissue D. Skin

Description : The most important target of action of chlorambucil is: A. Myeloid tissue B. Lymphoid tissue C. Neural tissue D. Skin

Last Answer : B. Lymphoid tissue

Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine

Description : Select the antimetabolite which is toxic to Leishmania but not to mammalian cells: A. Allopurinol B. Cytarabine C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine

Last Answer : A. Allopurino

Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Description : Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. 6-Thioguanine

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Description : Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses at the following site(s): A. Vagal afferents in intestines B. Nucleus tractus solitarius C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid

Last Answer : A. Ondansetron

5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting: A. Cisplatin induced B. Radiotherapy induced C. Postoperative D. All of the above

Description : 5 Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting: A. Cisplatin induced B. Radiotherapy induced C. Postoperative D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine

Last Answer : B. Ondansetron

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Anticancer drugs weaken host defence by: A. Damaging respiratory and gut epithelia B. Inducing granulocytopenia C. Altering resident microbial flora D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Emetine is now used only as a reserve drug for amoebiasis because: A. It is less effective than metronidazole B. It produces a slower response than metronidazole C. It has cardiotoxic potential D. It is not effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis

Description : Emetine is now used only as a reserve drug for amoebiasis because: A. It is less effective than metronidazole B. It produces a slower response than metronidazole C. It has cardiotoxic potential D. It is not effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis

Last Answer : C. It has cardiotoxic potentia

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Description : Choose the antiarrhythmic drug which prolongs action potential, can aggravate atrioventricular block but not heart failure, and has broad spectrum utility in acute as well as chronic, and ventricular as well as supraventricular arrhythmias: A. Quinidine B. Amiodarone C. Mexiletine D. Diltiazem

Last Answer : B. Amiodarone

Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Description : Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its: A. Poor efficacy B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis C. Oxytocic action D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

Last Answer : B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate is inhibited by (A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid

Description : Conversion of formylglycinamide ribosyl5-phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5-phosphate is inhibited by (A) Azaserine (B) Diazonorleucine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) Mycophenolic acid

Last Answer : Answer : A

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in the chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Arabinosyl cytosine (B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) 6-Thioguanine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in the chemotherapy of cancer and viral infections is (A) Arabinosyl cytosine (B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (C) 6-Mercaptopurine (D) 6-Thioguanine

Last Answer : Answer : A

A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Description : A synthetic nucleotide analogue, used in organ transplantation as a suppressor of immunologic rejection of grafts is (A) Theophylline (B) Cytarabine (C) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine (D) 6-Mercaptopurine

Last Answer : Answer : D

Hypomagnesaemia may be caused by which of the following drugs? 1) Aminophylline 2) Cisplatin 3) Co-trimoxazole 4) Digoxin 5) Amitriptyline

Description : Hypomagnesaemia may be caused by which of the following drugs? 1) Aminophylline 2) Cisplatin 3) Co-trimoxazole 4) Digoxin 5) Amitriptyline

Last Answer : Answers-2 Thiazide diuretics (not mentioned here) are a common cause of reduced serum magnesium. Cisplatin is a well recognised cause of hypomagnesaemia.

All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy

Description : All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except (a) age over 70 years (b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy (c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy (d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml (e) concurrent cisplatin therapy

Last Answer : Ans: D

Antidote for lead poisoning is (a) nickel (b) cisplatin (c) white of egg (d) EDTA

Description : Antidote for lead poisoning is (a) nickel (b) cisplatin (c) white of egg (d) EDTA

Last Answer : Ans:(d)

Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell– cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics (bleomycin) Antitumor antibiotics are cell-cycle nonspecific. c) Alkylating agents (cisplatin) Alkylating agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Description : Which of the following classes of antineoplastic agents is cell- cycle-specific? a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell-cycle-specific (S phase). b) Antitumor antibiotics ( ... agents are cell-cycle nonspecific. d) Nitrosureas (carmustine) Nitrosureas are cell-cycle nonspecific.

Last Answer : a) Antimetabolites (5-FU) Antimetabolites are cell–cycle-specific (S phase).

Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Description : Use of the following antimalarial drug carries high risk of adverse effect in subjects with G-6-PD deficiency: A. Pyrimethamine B. Artemisinin C. Primaquine D. Mefloquine

Last Answer : C. Primaquine

Defination of Anticancer agents

Description : Defination of Anticancer agents

Last Answer : Anticancer agents Those drugs which are used in treatment of cancer are used as anticancer agents e.g cis-platin.

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as (A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism (C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent

Description : Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as (A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism (C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent

Last Answer : (B)alkylating agent after metabolism

Recent anticancer Vit. (a) Vit. Q (b) Vit. B12 (c) Vit. B5 (d) Vit. B17

Description : Recent anticancer Vit. (a) Vit. Q (b) Vit. B12 (c) Vit. B5 (d) Vit. B17

Last Answer : (d) Vit. B17

elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Description : elect the drug/combination that you will prescribe as a prophylactic to a resident of non-endemic area who got posted for 6 months to an endemic area with low degree chloroquine resistance among P. falciparum: A. Quinine B. Proguanil + Chloroquine C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxine D. Artemisinin

Last Answer : B. Proguanil + Chloroquine

A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Description : A patient of vivax malaria was treated with the standard dose of chloroquine. After 6 weeks he reported back with a relapse. Which drug will you use to treat the relapse episode: A. Chloroquine B. Primaquine C. Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine D. Mefloquin

Last Answer : A. Chloroquine

The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the same 3 drugs for another 3 months B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs C. Replace 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Description : The HIV titer of an AIDS patient was found to be reduced but still detectable after 6 months of tripple drug anti-HIV therapy. The best course of action in this patient is: A. Continue the ... 2 drugs and continue one previously used drug D. Replace one drug and continue two previously used drugs

Last Answer : B. Replace all 3 drugs with a set of another 3 drugs

Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Started within 4-6 hours of acute myocardial infarction, which of the following drug(s) can reduce the area of necrosis and the attendant mortality: A. Propranolol B. Glyceryl trinitrate C. Lignocaine D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long

Last Answer : B. 6-12 months

6 Choose the drug that has been labelled as a 'noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant' or 'Na SSA': A. Mirtazapine B. Mianserin C. Venlafaxine D. Sertraline

Description : 6 Choose the drug that has been labelled as a 'noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant' or 'Na SSA': A. Mirtazapine B. Mianserin C. Venlafaxine D. Sertraline

Last Answer : A. Mirtazapine

Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures: A. Ethosuccimide B. Sodium valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin

Description : Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures: A. Ethosuccimide B. Sodium valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Sodium valproate

The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 diabetes mellitus (p. 250) 18.33 1 8 . 3 3 C 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Description : The thiazolidinediones are mainly used as: A. Sole drug in type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Sole drug in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Addon drug to insulin in type 1 ... 18.34 1 8 . 3 4 B 18.35 1 8 . 3 5 D 18.36 1 8 . 3 6 C

Last Answer : C. Addon drug to a sulfonylurea and/or a biguanide in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Description : The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is: A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis B. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia C. High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

Last Answer : A. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis

The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Description : The local anaesthetic having high cardiotoxic and arrhythmogenic potential is: A. Lignocaine B. Procaine C. Bupivacaine D. Ropivacaine

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine

n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause postural hypotension C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug

Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension

The following is correct about antipsychotic drugs except: A. They only control symptoms of schizophrenia without affecting the basic disorder B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is more efficacious than any single drug C. In treating psychosis high potency drugs are preferred over low potency drugs D. They donot produce dependence

Description : The following is correct about antipsychotic drugs except: A. They only control symptoms of schizophrenia without affecting the basic disorder B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is ... psychosis high potency drugs are preferred over low potency drugs D. They donot produce dependence

Last Answer : B. Combination of two or more antipsychotic drugs is more efficacious than any single drug

Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine

Description : Which of the following is a high potency antipsychotic drug having minimal sedative and autonomic effects and no propensity to cause weight gain: A. Chlorpromazine B. Triflupromazine C. Haloperidol D. Olanzapine

Last Answer : C. Haloperido

The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Description : The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Ataxia

15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Description : Budesonide is a: A. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug B. High ceiling diuretic C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma D. Contraceptive

Last Answer : C. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma