Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : B. Clarithromycin
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : A single oral dose of the following antibiotic is curative in most patients of nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Doxycycline B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Cotrimoxazole
Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantage(s) over erythromycin: A. It is more effective in whooping cough B. It causes less gastric irritation C. It has longer plasma half-life D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : Select the antibiotic(s) that can be used to treat nonspecific urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Clindamycin D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : Compared to erythromycin, azithromycin has: A. Extended antimicrobial spectrum B. Better gastric tolerance C. Longer duration of action D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin
Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering with translocation of elongating peptide chain from acceptor site back to the peptidyl site of the ribosome so that ... chain is prematurely terminated: A. Chloramphenicol B. Erythromycin C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin
Last Answer : B. Erythromycin
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Tobramycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : C. Tobramycin
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition: A. Chloramphenicol B. Tetracycline C. Erythromycin D. Gentamicin
Last Answer : Tetracycline
Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate
Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The following antibiotic is highly active against anaerobic bacteria including Bacteroides fragilis: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Clarithromycin C. Clindamycin D. Tobramycin
Last Answer : C. Clindamycin
Description : What is true of thalidomide: A. It exerts antitumour activity in some solid malignant tumours B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia C. It exerts antileprotic action D. All of the above
Last Answer : B. It ameliorates cancer associated cachexia
Description : The tetracycline with highest antileprotic activity is: A. Minocycline B. Doxycycline C. Demeclocycline D. Oxytetracycline
Last Answer : A. Minocycline
Description : Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except (a) It is more effective in whooping cough (b) It causes less gastric irritation (c) It has longer plasma half-life (d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100 mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull, stopped feeding, developed ... most likely antibiotic given to him: A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : B. Chloramphenico
Description : The following antibiotic penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best: A. Erythromycin B. Gentamicin C. Tetracycline D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : D. Chloramphenicol
Description : 2 Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations: A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin Although erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic, it is bactericidal at high concentrations for some Gram-positive species, such as group A streptococci and pneumococci
Description : The following antibiotic accentuates the nuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Penicillin G D. Chloramphenicol
Last Answer : A. Streptomycin
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas: A. Nalidixic acid B. Azithromycin C. Bacampicillin D. Pefloxacin
Last Answer : A. Nalidixic acid
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well: A. Dapsone B. Rifampin C. Clofazimine D. Minocycline
Last Answer : C. Clofazimine
Description : Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency (a) Ampicillin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Tobramycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ? (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracycline (c) Erythromycin (d) Genetamicin
Description : The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is (a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit (b) Formation of ... ) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases (e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin
Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen
Description : The drugs used to treat Mycobact. avium complex infection in AIDS patients include the following except: A. Isoniazid B. Clarithromycin C. Ethambutol D. Ciprofloxacin
Last Answer : A. Isoniazid
Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months
Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid
Description : Clarithromycin is used for the following: A. Multidrug resistant M.tuberculosis infection B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient C. M.tuberculosis infection in a patient who develops jaundice due to first line antitubercular drugs D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : B. M.avium complex infection in AIDS patient
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.
Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious
Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole
Last Answer : C. Metronidazole
Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : A. Gentamicin
Description : Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic: A. Demeclocycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Minocycline D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : C. Minocycline
Description : Select the antibiotic that has a high therapeutic index: A. Streptomycin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : C. Cephalexin
Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals
Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals
Description : Nalorphine is nearly equipotent analgesic as morphine, but is not used clinically as an analgesic because: A. It causes more marked respiratory depression B. It has higher abuse potential C. It antagonises the action of morphine D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects
Last Answer : D. It produces prominent dysphoric effects
Description : The nonselective MAO inhibitors are not used clinically as antidepressants because of their: A. Low antidepressant efficacy B. Higher toxicity C. Potential to interact with many foods and drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Description : The following drug of abuse is a hallucinogen: A. Cocaine B. Cannabis C. Heroin D. Methaqualone (p. 403) 31.1 Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor: A. Selegiline
Last Answer : B. Cannabis
Description : The clinically used local anaesthetics have the following common features except: A. They are amphiphilic weak bases B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients C. In their ... needed D. They are safer than general anaesthetics in patients with respiratory and cardiovascular disease
Last Answer : B. They are used for surgery in non-cooperative patients
Description : The following class(es) of drugs are clinically beneficial in bronchial asthma: A. Histamine H1 receptor antagonists B. Platelet activating factor (PAF) antagonists C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists D. All of the above
Last Answer : C. Leukotriene ( cys LT1) receptor antagonists
Description : Select the drug having a narrow spectrum antiepileptic activity restricted to absence seizures: A. Lamotrigine B. Ethosuccimide C. Sodium valproate D. Primidone
Last Answer : . Ethosuccimide
Description : Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis? (a) Tetracycline (b) Erythromycin (c) Neomycin (d) Streptomycin
Last Answer : (d) Streptomycin
Description : .Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis? (a) Tetracycline (b) Erythromycin (c) Neomycin (d) Streptomycin
Last Answer : (c) Neomycin
Description : A patient presents with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. The antibiotic of choice is: A. Chloromycetin B. Sulphonamide C. Buffered penicillin D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin E. Achromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin could be better if is clindamycin
Description : The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : C. Ceftriaxone