Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis
Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis
Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin
Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor
Description : Clotrimazole is used for the following conditions except: A. Monilial diarrhoea B. Monilial vaginitis C. Otomycosis D. Tinea cruris
Last Answer : A. Monilial diarrhoea
Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis
Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis
Description : Tinidazole differs from metronidazole in that: A. It is not active against anaerobic bacteria B. It has a broader spectrum of activity C. It has a longer elimination half life D. It has better oral absorption
Last Answer : C. It has a longer elimination half life
Description : Select the drug which is active against a variety of diarrhoea producing organisms like Giardia, Shigella, Salmonella as well as S. typhi and Trichomonas vaginalis, but is not a first line treatment for any of these: A. Metronidazole B. Mepacrine C. Cotrimoxazole D. Furazolidone
Last Answer : D. Furazolidone
Description : The drug of choice for monilial diarrhoea is: A. Flucytosine B. Nystatin C. Natamycin D. Ketoconazole
Last Answer : B. Nystatin
Description : The following antiamoebic drug should not be used in children because of risk of causing blindness: A. Quiniodochlor B. Diloxanide furoate C. Tinidazole D. Secnidazole
Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole
Last Answer : C. Metronidazole
Description : In which of the following conditions estrogen is not the primary drug but is added to progestin as adjuvant: A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding B. Menopausal syndrome C. Osteoporosis D. Atrophic vaginitis
Last Answer : A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Description : Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic mycosis: A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clotrimazole D. Ketoconazole
Last Answer : D. Ketoconazole
Description : Select the correct statement about tibolone: A. It is an antiestrogen used for palliative treatment of carcinoma breast B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement ... for male pattern baldness D. It is a nonsteroidal estrogen used topically for senile vaginitis
Last Answer : B. It is an estrogenic + progestational steroid used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women
Description : n addition to malarial parasite, chloroquine is active against: A. Microfilariae B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Dermatophytes
Last Answer : C. Entamoeba histolytica
Description : Drug of choice against Trichomoniasis is A A. Metronidazole B. Tinidazole C. Paramomycin D. furazolidone
Last Answer : Metronidazole
Description : Choose the drug whose single oral dose affords clinical cure of uncomplicated malaria caused by chloroquine sensitive/resistant P.falciparum as well as P. vivax: A. Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Artesunate D. Proguanil
Last Answer : B. Mefloquine
Description : Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in that: A. It is not active by the oral route B. It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism C. It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Last Answer : D. It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
Description : Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route: A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole C. Griseofulvin D. Tolnaftate
Last Answer : C. Griseofulvin
Description : A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea: A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Spectinomycin D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : A. Ciprofloxacin
Description : The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants: A. Broad spectrum antibiotic B. Cimetidine C. Aspirin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : D. Oral contraceptive
Description : The preferred drug for suppressing febrile convulsions is: A. Intramuscular phenobarbitone B. Intravenous phenytoin C. Rectal diazepam D. Oral sodium valproate
Last Answer : C. Rectal diazepam
Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol
Last Answer : C. Cimetidin
Description : The present status of oral hypoglycaemics in diabetes mellitus is: A. They are the first choice drug in all cases B. They should be prescribed only if the patient refuses insulin injections C. ... I diabetes mellitus D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics
Last Answer : D. They are used first in most uncomplicated mild to moderate type 2 diabetics
Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes
Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Description : Which of the following drugs can precipitate hypoglycaemia if given to a diabetic controlled with a sulfonylurea drug: A. Phenobarbitone B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin D. Oral contraceptive
Last Answer : . Chloramphenicol
Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity
Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability
Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache
Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours
Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol
Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate
Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences
Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences
Description : For the treatment of hypogonadism and impotence, testosterone/dihydrotestosterone can be administered by the following route/routes: A. Oral B. Intramuscular C. Transdermal D. Both 'B' and 'C
Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'
Description : What is Natamycin ?
Last Answer : : Natamycin is an antibiotic also known as pimaricin, tennecetin or myprozine . It is effective against yeast and mold , but also against bacteria. It was collected from Streptomyces natalensis . It is used from 1 to 25 ppm depending on the field.
Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously
Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells
Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin
Last Answer : B. Vancomycin
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : B. Clarithromycin
Description : What is true of drug therapy of typhoid fever: A. Combination of chloramphenicol with ciprofloxacin is superior to either drug alone B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting ... C. Prolonged treatment with chloramphenicol eradicates typhoid carrier state D. All of the above are correct
Last Answer : B. Ceftriaxone (i.v.) is one of the fastest acting and most dependable treatment
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
Description : Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is: A. Chloramphenicol B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ampicillin
Last Answer : C. Ciprofloxacin
Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment
Description : Prolonged treatment with the following drug can promote dissolution of gallstones if the gall bladder is functional: A. Ursodeoxycholic acid B. Sodium taurocholate C. Sodium glycocholate D. Cholecystokinin
Last Answer : A. Ursodeoxycholic acid
Description : ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine
Last Answer : B. Omeprazole
Description : n the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage: A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido B. They do not cause ... high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug
Last Answer : B. They do not cause postural hypotension
Description : A 30-year-old woman suffering from endogenous depression improved after one month of treatment with amitriptyline. How long the drug should be continued: A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-12 months C. 2-3 years D. Life long
Last Answer : B. 6-12 months
Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit
Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence
Description : Select the antiepileptic drug that in addition is a preferred treatment for post herpetic neuralgia and pain due to diabetic neuropathy: A. Carbamazepine B. Gabapentin C. Lamotrigine D. Primidone
Last Answer : B. Gabapentin
Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months
Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month
Description : Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine: A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment ... resistant cases D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided
Last Answer : C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases
Description : Clotrimazole and nystatin are both A. topical antifungals B. anti-itch creams C. topical antibiotics D. used to treat eczema
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis
Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time
Description : This drug, which does not activate opioid receptors, has been proposed as a maintenance drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts; a singly oral dose will block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hours (a) Amphetamine (b) Buprenorphine (c) Naloxone (d) Naltrexone (e) Propoxyphene
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is ... (b) Aztreonam (c) Cefazolin (d) Imipenem plus cilastatin (e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Last Answer : Ans: B