Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin
Last Answer : C. Linezolid
Description : _____ cause a yellow-gray-brown discoloration of teeth and stunted bones in children, which have limited its use to adults. a. Methicillin b. Vancomycin c. Tetracycline d. Erythromycin
Last Answer : c. Tetracycline
Description : Select the antibiotic which inhibits drug metabolizing isoenzyme CYP3A4 resulting in potentially fatal drug interaction with terfenadine: A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin C. Gentamicin D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : A. Erythromycin
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organisms except: A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus B. Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus C. Penicillinase producing N.gonorrhoeae D. β-lactamase producing E.coli
Last Answer : A. Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients: A. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : B. Clarithromycin
Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion
Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis
Description : Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it (a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose (b ... not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes (e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : The drug of choice for penicillinase producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae urethritis is: A. Amoxicillin B. Erythromycin C. Ceftriaxone D. Doxycycline
Last Answer : C. Ceftriaxone
Description : Which of the following penicillins are readily destructed by stomach acid: A. Methicillin B. Cloxacillin C. Phenoxy methyl D. Penicillin G
Last Answer : D. Penicillin G
Description : Indicate the drug which attains therapeutic antibacterial concentration in the urinary tract but not in other tissues: A. Pefloxacin B. Amikacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Cephalexin
Last Answer : C. Nitrofurantoin
Description : Which of the following is a drug that interferes with the process of DNA production in the virus A- A.Erythromycin B- Vancomycin C- Amantadine D- Acyclovi
Last Answer : Acyclovi
Description : In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is (a) Clarithromycin (b) Erythromycin (c) Linezolid (d) Minocycline (e) Ticarcillin
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except (a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus (b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus (c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae (d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients (a) Clindamycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Roxithromycin (d) Erythromycin
Description : A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy? (a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h (b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h (c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h (d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h (e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Description : Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G? (a) Amikacin (b) Gentamicin (c) Netilmicin (d) Streptomycin (e) Tobramycin
Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin
Last Answer : D. Erythromycin
Description : Choose the correct statement about tetracyclines: A. Being broad spectrum antibioics they are dependable for empirical treatment of lifethreatening infections B. Currently, they are not the first ... of diarrhoea in cholera D. The are preferred for treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections
Last Answer : C. They reduce stool volume and duration of diarrhoea in cholera
Description : Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen: A. Amoxicillin B. Vancomycin C. Metronidazole D. Clotrimazole
Last Answer : C. Metronidazole
Description : The preferred drug for controlling an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is: A. Prednisolone B. Sulfasalazine C. Mesalazine D. Vancomycin
Last Answer : . Prednisolone
Description : A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is ... ? (a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (b) Erythromycin (c) Ampicillin (d) cefaclor (e) Cyclacillin
Description : What is the function of Staphylococcus aureus ?
Last Answer : Staphylococcus aureus is one of the best medicine for overcoming male impotence. This is especially true for those whose flag has been broken due to excessive sexual activity or ... is because staphylococcus aureus is equally effective in both sexually transmitted diseases and traumatic diseases.
Description : Is an example of a bacterium (choose all that apply) chicken pox the flu ameoba Bacillus anthracis yeast parameceum Staphylococcus aureus mushrooms?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus ?
Last Answer : Toxic shock syndrome
Description : Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for A A. early chick mortality B. Necrotic enteritis C. respiratory distress D. None of the these
Last Answer : early chick mortality
Description : Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease? a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. strep viridins group
Last Answer : a. Group A streptococcus
Description : Impetigo is a skin disease caused by a. a species of Haemophilus. b. a species of Chlamydia. c. Bacteroides fragilis. d. Staphylococcus aureus.
Last Answer : d. Staphylococcus aureus.
Description : : All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may cause nosocomial disease except: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. b. Escherichia coli. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Mycobacterium leprae.
Last Answer : d. Mycobacterium leprae.
Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis
Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus.
Description : Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with a. Helicobacter Pylori. b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Escherichia Coli. d. Salmonella Typhi.
Last Answer : c. Escherichia Coli.
Description : Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)? a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus cereus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium perfringens
Last Answer : a. Escherichia coli
Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus
Description : Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools in the summer. It is often caused by _____. a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Pseudomonas d. A-C are correct
Last Answer : d. A-C are correct
Description : .If a 1:600 dilution of a test compound kills a standard population of Staphylococcus aureus in 10minutes but not 5 minutes while a 1:60 dilution of phenol kills the population in thesame time, what is the phenol coefficient of the test compound? A- 1 B- 5 C- .10 D- .50
Last Answer : .10
Description : Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying? A- .Treponema palladium B- Mycobacterium tuberculosis C- Staphylococcus aureus D- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Last Answer : .Treponema palladium
Description : Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the following microorganisms? a) Staphylococcus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections. b) Proteus species While Proteus species are ... coli is frequently found in osteomyelitis, it does not cause the majority of bone infections
Last Answer : a) Staphylococcus Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.
Description : Which is of the following organism is an Gram-ve organism A Staphylococcus aureus B Bacillus Subtilis C Vibrio cholerae D Clostridium tetani
Last Answer : C Vibrio cholerae
Description : Which of the following infections can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus: A. Thyroiditis B. Pancreatitis C. Osteomyelitis D. Scarlatina E. Pneumonia
Last Answer : C. Osteomyelitis
Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes
Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin
Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Cisapride
Description : he aminoglycoside antibiotic which is distinguished by its resistance to bacterial aminoglycoside inactivating enzymes is: A. Kanamycin B. Sisomicin C. Amikacin D. Tobramycin
Last Answer : C. Amikacin
Description : Which of the following is not likely to be the cause of failure of antimicrobial therapy of an acute infection: A. Improper selection of drug and dose B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment C. Failure to drain the pus D. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Last Answer : B. Acquisition of resistance during treatment
Description : Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)? (a) Vancomycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Erythromycin base (d) Troleandomycin (e) Erythromycin estolate
Description : In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients? (a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol ... (d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine (e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Description : Two drugs that affect cell wall synthesis are a. Erythromycin and penicillin. b. Vancomycin and cephalosporin. c. Tetracycline and polymyxin b. d. Chloramphenicol and streptomycin.
Last Answer : a. Erythromycin and penicillin.
Description : Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections: A. Erythromycin B. Azithromycin C. Roxithromycin D. Clarithromycin
Last Answer : B. Azithromycin
Description : Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for: A. Agranulocytosis patients B. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever D. Treatment of anthrax
Last Answer : C. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever