Pentamidine should be used to treat Kala azar only when sodium stibogluconate has failed or is not tolerated because: A. It achieves lower cure rates B. It is more toxic C. It requires a longer course of treatment D. Relapses are more common with it

Pentamidine should be used to treat Kala azar only
when sodium stibogluconate has failed or is not
tolerated because:
A. It achieves lower cure rates
B. It is more toxic
C. It requires a longer course of treatment
D. Relapses are more common with it
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. It is more toxic
by

Related questions

The drug of choice for Kala azar is: A. Pentamidine B. Amphotericin B C. Sodium stibogluconate D. Ketoconazole

Description : The drug of choice for Kala azar is: A. Pentamidine B. Amphotericin B C. Sodium stibogluconate D. Ketoconazole

Last Answer : C. Sodium stibogluconat

What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : What is true about use of amphotericin B in kala azar: A. It is currently the drug of choice B. It is more effective than ketoconazole C. It is indicated only in cases not responding to sodium stibogluconate D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

In addition to amoebiasis, metronidazole is used for: A. Roundworm infestation B. Hookworm infestation C. Kala-azar D. Giardiasis

Description : In addition to amoebiasis, metronidazole is used for: A. Roundworm infestation B. Hookworm infestation C. Kala-azar D. Giardiasis

Last Answer : D. Giardiasis

For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Description : For the treatment of Hymenolepis nana infestation, praziquantel has the following advantage(s) over niclosamide: A. It is better tolerated B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with ... C. A purgative is required after niclosamide but not after praziquantel D. All of the abov

Last Answer : B. It requires single dose treatment against 5 days treatment with niclosamide

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Description : The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

n the treatment of hyperthyroidism, carbimazole has the following advantage over radioactive iodine: A. Cost of treatment is lower B. It is preferable in uncooperative patient C. It is better tolerated by the patients D. Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

Description : n the treatment of hyperthyroidism, carbimazole has the following advantage over radioactive iodine: A. Cost of treatment is lower B. It is preferable in uncooperative patient C. It is better tolerated by the patients D. Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

Last Answer : Hypothyroidism when induced is reversible

Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It needs pretreatment fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Description : Thiabendazole is rarely used now because: A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects B. It produces lower cure rates in intestinal helminthiasis than mebendazole or albendazole C. It ... fasting and post treatment purgative D. It is not active against roundworm and hookworm

Last Answer : A. It frequently produces incapacitating side effects

By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? -General Knowledge

Description : By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : The answer is 'By binary fission'

Which insect spreads Kala-azar? – Sand fly -Do You Know?

Description : Which insect spreads Kala-azar? – Sand fly -Do You Know?

Last Answer : answer:

By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? -General Knowledge

Description : By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? -General Knowledge

Last Answer : answer:

By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually?

Description : By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually?

Last Answer : By binary fission

Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease. (a) Anopheles – Malaria (b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness (c) Glossina – Kala-azar (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis

Description : Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease. (a) Anopheles – Malaria (b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness (c) Glossina – Kala-azar (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis

Last Answer : (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis

Which of the following diseases is now considered completely eradicated from India? (a) Small pox (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Plague (d) Kala-azar

Description : Which of the following diseases is now considered completely eradicated from India? (a) Small pox (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Plague (d) Kala-azar

Last Answer : a) Small pox

Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by (a) housefly (b) bed bug (c) sand fly (d) fruit fly.

Description : Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by (a) housefly (b) bed bug (c) sand fly (d) fruit fly.

Last Answer : (c) sand fly

Which insect spreads kala-azar?

Description : Which insect spreads kala-azar?

Last Answer : Sand fly

Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct ? (I) Leishmania - Sleeping sickness (II) Nematode - Elephantiasis (III) Trypanosoma - Kala azar (IV) Staphylococcus - Acne (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (II) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)

Description : Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct ? (I) Leishmania - Sleeping sickness (II) Nematode - Elephantiasis (III) Trypanosoma - Kala azar (IV) Staphylococcus - Acne (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (II) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)

Last Answer : (3) (II) and (IV)

Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Description : Allopurinol has a therapeutic effect in the following conditions except: A. Radiotherapy induced hyperuricaemia B. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricaemia C. Acute gouty arthritis D. Kala-azar

Last Answer : C. Acute gouty arthritis

1. Susi Susanti, held the Grand Slam title in which game? 2. Who is most benefitted from inflation? 3. Which insect spreads Kala-azar? – Sand fly 4. What is Snow line? 5. Who was the first Mughal emperor to issue a firman in favour of the British to open a factory at Surat?

Description : 1. Susi Susanti, held the Grand Slam title in which game? 2. Who is most benefitted from inflation? 3. Which insect spreads Kala-azar? - Sand fly 4. What is Snow line? 5. Who ... 19. The 38th parallel separates which countries? 20. Which Act removed the legal recognition of slavery in India?

Last Answer : Answer : 1. Badminton 2. Debtors 3. Sand fly 4. The altitude above which snow never melts 5. Jahangir 6. President 7. Thioethanol 8. Harbhajan Singh 9. Old Igneous 10. Cornwallis 11. Environment and ... water 17. Tertiary sector 18. Apsara 19. North Korea and South Korea 20. The Act V of 1843

1. Who has taken maximum wickets in one-day internationals? 2. By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? 3. From which date shall the tenure of every Panchayat be for five years? 4. The last three digits of a PIN code represent? 5. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

Description : 1. Who has taken maximum wickets in one-day internationals? 2. By which fission does Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar, multiply asexually? 3. From which date shall the tenure of every ... bring nine months winter? 20. Who led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905) ?

Last Answer : Answer : 1. Mutthiah Muralitharan 2. By binary fission 3. From the date of its first meeting 4. Sorting district 5. Lord Chelmsford 6. Cathode rays 7. Direct taxes 8. South Africa 9. Gujarat ... Current 15. Lord Willingdon 16. Chennai 17. 4 18. Pig 19. Eastern Newfoundland 20. Surendranath Banerjee

Kala-azar is transmitted by (1) tsetse fly (2) housefly (3) anopheles mosquito (4) sand fly

Description : Kala-azar is transmitted by (1) tsetse fly (2) housefly (3) anopheles mosquito (4) sand fly

Last Answer : sand fly

All are protozoan diseases except (1) Elephantiasis (2) Oriental sores (3) Sleeping sickness (4) Kala-azar

Description : All are protozoan diseases except (1) Elephantiasis (2) Oriental sores (3) Sleeping sickness (4) Kala-azar

Last Answer : Elephantiasis

Vector of Kala-azar is : (1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Culex mosquito (3) Tse-Tsefly (4) Sand fly

Description : Vector of Kala-azar is : (1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Culex mosquito (3) Tse-Tsefly (4) Sand fly

Last Answer :  Sand fly

If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Description : If a multibacillary leprosy patient treated with standard fixed duration multidrug therapy relapses, he should be treated with: A. The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen B. ... + minocycline C. Clofazimine + ofloxacin + clarithromycin D. Ofloxacin + minocycline + clarithromycin

Last Answer : . The same rifampin + dapsone + clofazimine regimen

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Description : The limitations of quinidine in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias include the following except: A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity B. It is not tolerated by many patients C. It can precipitate myocardial decompensation D. It can cause marked hypotension

Last Answer : A. It has narrow spectrum antiarrhythmic activity

A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no other drug before or after B. Propranolol for 1 week followed by 131I C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 months D. Propranolol + Lugol’s iodine for 2 weeks— 131I—continue Lugol’s iodine for 2-3 months

Description : A 60-year-old male presents with severe hyperthyroidism and multinodular goiter. It was decided to treat him with 131I. The most appropriate course of treatment would be: A. Immediate 131I dosing with no ... . Propranolol + Lugol's iodine for 2 weeks- 131I-continue Lugol's iodine for 2-3 months

Last Answer : C. Propranolol + carbimazole till severe thyrotoxicosis is controlled—1 week gap—131I— resume carbimazole after 1 week for 2-3 month

Pentamidine is a first line drug for the following disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia C. Actinomycosis D. Leishmaniasis

Description : Pentamidine is a first line drug for the following disease: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia C. Actinomycosis D. Leishmaniasis

Last Answer : B. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

The modern consensus regarding the sending of disciplinary cases to the principal's office is that Options: A) It should be used only when other means have failed B) It is generally best used for first offense to show that non-sense will not be tolerated C) It is a sign of poor discipline D) It is generally advisable since the principal is ultimately responsible for the discipline in his school

Description : The modern consensus regarding the sending of disciplinary cases to the principal's office is that Options: A) It should be used only when other means have failed B) It is generally ... D) It is generally advisable since the principal is ultimately responsible for the discipline in his school

Last Answer : A) It should be used only when other means have failed 

The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with chloramphenicol C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Description : The primary reason why chloramphenicol is not being used as the first line drug for typhoid fever in most areas is: A. Toxic potential of chloramphenicol B. Delayed defervescence with ... C. Delayed bacteriological cure with chloramphenicol D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Last Answer : D. Spread of chloramphenicol resistance among S. typhi

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Description : Ceftriaxone has all the following attributes except: A. It has a long plasma half life of 8 hours B. It can cause bleeding by prolonging prothrombin time C. It has attained high cure rates in multiresistant typhoid infection D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Last Answer : D. It penetrates CSF poorly and therefore not effective in meningitis

Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Description : Cefotaxime has the following properties except: A. It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. It produces an active metabolite D. It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections

Last Answer : B. It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Description : ndicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease: A. Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel B. Omeprazole C. Mosapride D. Famotidine

Last Answer : B. Omeprazole

After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites

As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging

Description : As an anthelmintic mebendazole has the following advantages except: A. It is active against most intestinal helminths B. It is very well tolerated C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestation D. It does not require predrug fasting or postdrug purging

Last Answer : C. Single dose cures roundworm and hookworm infestatio

Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better tolerated than inorganic salts C. Liquid preparations of iron are better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Description : Choose the correct statement about severity of side effects to oral iron medication: A. Ferrous salts are better tolerated than ferric salts B. Complex organic salts of iron are better ... better tolerated than tablets D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

Last Answer : D. Tolerability depends on the quantity of elemental iron in the medication

The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation (c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Description : All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except (a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii (b) it may be ... clinically significant effect on serum glucose (d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis

Last Answer : Ans: C

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Description : The fastest symptomatic relief as well as highest healing rates in reflux esophagitis are obtained with: A. Prokinetic drugs B. H2 receptor blockers C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Sodium alginate

Last Answer : C. Proton pump inhibitors

The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at specific identified pathogens once sensitivity reports are available (directed therapy). The following statement(s) is/are true concerning these therapies. a. The issue of toxic side effects of antibiotics is only important in dealing with emperic therapy b. Single agent therapy is generally inferior to specific multi-drug therapy (aminoglycoside plus an antianaerobic agent) for the treatment of secondary bacterial peritonitis due to appendicitis, diverticulitis, penetrating gastrointestinal injury, or anastomotic leak c. With the empiric use of antibiotics, a diligent search for the septic source should be undertaken and co

Description : The use of antibiotics can be based on either the clinical course of a patient without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data (empiric therapy), or targeted at ... which polymicrobial infection is identified, specifically-directed treatment for the predominant organism is satisfactory

Last Answer : Answer: c The use of empiric therapy without the benefit of well-defined microbiologic data is appropriate when there is sufficient clinical evidence to support the diagnosis such that it would ... components of the infection if the body site is such that these microorganisms may be present

The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Description : The most important drawback of radioactive iodine treatment of Grave’s disease is: A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients B. Marked side effect for 1-2 weeks after treatment C. High cost D. Permanent cure cannot be achieved

Last Answer : A. Subsequent hypothyroidism in many patients

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Description : Indicate the attribute that is common to both polymyxin B and bacitracin: A. Both are active against gram negative bacteria B. Both are too toxic for systemic use C. Both act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis D. Both a

Last Answer : B. Both are too toxic for systemic use

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent