Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. It is an orally active gold compound
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Following gold compound is generally administered orally (a) Aurothioglucose (b) Auronafin (c) Gold sodium thiomalate (d) All of the above

Description : Following gold compound is generally administered orally (a) Aurothioglucose (b) Auronafin (c) Gold sodium thiomalate (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is started C. It is used as an alternative to corticosteroids D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of gold sod. thiomalate in rheumatoid arthritis: A. It affords more rapid symptomatic relief than NSAIDs B. The NSAIDs therapy is discontinued when it is ... D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

Last Answer : D. It is used only in severe cases when other diseases modifying antirheumatic drugs have failed

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

The following antirheumatic drug affords symptomatic relief but does not bring about remission in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Gold sodium thiomalate B. Prednisolone C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide

Description : The following antirheumatic drug affords symptomatic relief but does not bring about remission in rheumatoid arthritis: A. Gold sodium thiomalate B. Prednisolone C. Hydroxychloroquine D. Leflunomide

Last Answer : B. Prednisolone

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Description : Choose the correct statement about nefopam: A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It is an orally active opioid analgesic C. It is an analgesic with potent antiinflammatory activity D. It is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor

Last Answer : A. It is a nonopioid analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Description : Select the antibiotic which is equally effective whether injected 8 hourly or 24 hourly, provided the total daily dose remains the same: A. Gentamicin B. Sod. penicillin G C. Cefazolin D. Vancomycin

Last Answer : A. Gentamicin

Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ACE inhibitors ± digitalis/ diuretic C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Description : Choose the correct statement about use of βadrenergic blockers in CHF: A. All β blockers are equally effective in CHF B. They are used as alternative to conventional therapy with ... dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy D. They are indicated only in asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction

Last Answer : C. They are most useful in mild to moderate cases with systolic dysfunction due to dilated cardiomyopathy

Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Description : Features of phenoxymethyl penicillin include the following: A. It is acid stable and orally active B. Its antibacterial spectrum is similar to that of benzyl penicillin C. It is used for less serious penicillin G sensitive infections D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Description : Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective α adrenergic blockers are not because: A. It is the only orally active α blocker B. It improves plasma lipid profile C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release D. It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy

Last Answer : C. It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release

Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement about lactulose: A. It stimulates myenteric neurones to enhance gut peristalsis B. Administered orally it acts as a purgative within 2-4 hours C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : C. It is an osmotic laxative that produces soft but formed stools

Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Description : Choose the orally active third generation cephalosporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well: A. Cefdinir B. Ceftazidime C. Cefoperazone D. Ceftizoxime

Last Answer : A. Cefdinir

Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Description : Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Description : Choose the correct statement about iron therapy: A. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy B. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia C. ... iron therapy must be given during pregnancy D. Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy

Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement about bambuterol: A. It is an orally acting bronchodilator B. It is a prodrug C. It inhibits the enzyme pseudocholinesterase D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate

Description : Among the disease modifying antirheumatic drugs, fastest symptom relief is obtained with: A. Auranofin B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : D. Methotrexate

What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Description : What is true about human interferon α: A. It is used to treat HIV infection B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients C. It is curative for hepatitis B virus infection D. It is active orally

Last Answer : B. It is used to treat Kaposi‘s sarcoma in AIDS patients

Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious

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Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective

Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor

Description : Sodium valproate should be used with caution in young children because they are particularly at risk of developing the following adverse effect: A. Hepatitis B. Loss of hair C. Anorexia D. Tremor

Last Answer : A. Hepatitis

Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure than after it C. It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Description : Cyclosporine has the following attributes except: A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity B. It is more active as immunosuppressant when administered before antigen exposure ... It is not toxic to the bone marrow D. Its major toxicity is kidney damage

Last Answer : A. It selectively suppresses humoral immunity without affecting cell mediated immunity

Choose the preparation(s) of vitamin K that should not be injected in the newborn: A. Phytonadione B. Menadione C. Menadione sod.diphosphate D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : Choose the preparation(s) of vitamin K that should not be injected in the newborn: A. Phytonadione B. Menadione C. Menadione sod.diphosphate D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality C. They compromise quality of life more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Description : Choose the correct statement about long acting calcium channel blocking drugs as antihypertensives: A. They are the most effective drugs in suppressing hypertensive left ventricular hypertrophy B. They ... more than β blockers D. They have no beneficial effect in hypertensive/diabetic nephropath

Last Answer : B. They are as effective as diuretics or β blockers in reducing cardiovascular/total mortality

The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Description : The following is not true of naltrexone: A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphine B. It is active orally C. It has a long duration of action D. It can reduce craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics

Last Answer : A. It produces agonistic actions of its own in the absence of morphin

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Description : The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Description : The following is true of linezolid except: A. It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis at an early step B. It is active against vancomycin resistant enterococci C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis D. It can be administered orally as well as by i.v. infusion

Last Answer : C. It is the drug of choice for enterococcal endocarditis

Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Description : Features of clindamycin include the following: A. It is primarily active against aerobic gram negative bacilli B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris C. It is not absorbed orally D. It is used to treat pseudomembranous enterocolitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically to treat infected acne vulgaris

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Description : Select the diuretic which is orally active, efficacious in acidosis as well as alkalosis, causes diuresis even in renal failure and has additional carbonic anhydrase inhibitory action: A. Mannitol B. Benzthiazide C. Indapamide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : D. Furosemide

The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Description : The following is an orally active lignocaine congener used for both acute as well as chronic ventricular arrhythmias: A. Mexiletine B. Flecainide C. Moricizine D. Propafenone

Last Answer : A. Mexiletine

The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Description : The following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent: A. Menotropin B. Mifepristone C. Danazol D. Clomiphene citrate

Last Answer : D. Clomiphene citrate

Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about retroviral protease inhibitors: A. They act at an early step in HIV replication B. They are more active in inhibiting HIV than zidovudine C. They inhibit CYP3A4 and interact with many other drugs D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III hyperlipoproteinemia C. It is not effective in diabetes associated hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Description : Choose the correct statement about lovastatin: A. It markedly lowers plasma triglyceride with little effect on cholesterol level B. It is used as an adjuvant to gemfibrozil for type III ... hypercholesterolemia D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Last Answer : D. It is a competitive inhibitor of the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis

Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Description : Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action: A. Ergometrine B. Ergotamine C. Dihydroergotamine D. Dihydroergotoxine

Last Answer : A. Ergometrine

Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about cefepime: A. It is a 4th generation cephalosporin B. It is active against many bacteria resistant to 3rd generation celphalosporins C. It is active by the oral route D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correct

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not ... P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis

Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Description : Vincristine differs from vinblastine in the following respect(s): A. Its prominent adverse effect is neuropathy B. It frequently produces alopecia C. It does not significantly depress bone marrow D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Description : Choose the drug that can be used orally for intestinal amoebiasis, intravaginally for trichomonas vaginitis and topically for dermatophytosis: A. Quiniodochlor B. Furazolidone C. Ornidazole D. Hamycin

Last Answer : A. Quiniodochlor

The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Description : The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug concentration: A. Ataxia B. Hirsutism C. Gum hyperplasia D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Ataxia

Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about metronidazole: A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess B. It affords the most rapid symptom relief in amoebic dysentery C. It is the most effective drug in eradicating amoebic cysts from the colon D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It is a first line drug for amoebic dysentery as well as amoebic liver abscess

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Description : Adrenergic neurone blocking drugs: A. Block the action of adrenaline on neuronal α2 adrenoceptors B. Block both α and β adrenoceptor mediated effects of injected adrenaline C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline D. Do not block the effects of sympathetic nerve stimulation

Last Answer : C. Do not block any effect of injected adrenaline

Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Description : Choose the correct statement about rifampin: A. It is the most active drug on slow growing tubercle bacilli B. Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria D. It does not effectively cross blood-CSF barrier

Last Answer : C. It is active against many atypical mycobacteria

Select the correct statement about Naloxone: A. It equally blocks μ, κ and δ opioid receptors B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others C. It blocks κ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others D. It blocks δ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

Description : Select the correct statement about Naloxone: A. It equally blocks μ, κ and δ opioid receptors B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others C. It blocks κ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others D. It blocks δ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

Last Answer : B. It blocks μ receptors at lower doses than those needed for others

The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum antibiotic to a broad spectrum one if both are equally effective C. Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Description : The following strategy will promote rather than curb emergence of antibiotic resistant micro-organisms: A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics B. Prefer a narrow spectrum ... Prefer short and intensive courses of antibiotics D. Use antibiotic combinations for prolonged therapy

Last Answer : A. Whenever possible use broad spectrum antibiotics

The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Description : The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is: A. Onycolysis B. Myopathy C. Alopecia D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

Last Answer : B. Myopathy

Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Description : Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration? (a) Adenosine (b) Amiodarone (c) Disopyramide (d) Esmolol (e) Mexiletine

Last Answer : Ans: E