The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has practically replaced the conventional regimens because: A. It is more efficatious B. It is less toxic C. It has yielded higher completion rates D. All of the above are correc

The short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis has
practically replaced the conventional regimens
because:
A. It is more efficatious
B. It is less toxic
C. It has yielded higher completion rates
D. All of the above are correc
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above are correct
by

Related questions

The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Description : The WHO guidelines for treatment of tuberculosis with short course chemotherapy under the DOTS strategy categorise patients on the basis of the following: A. Site and severity of the disease B. Sputum smear positivity/negativity C. History of earlier antitubercular drug use D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency (c) Less nursing time is required (d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Description : Which one of the following statements about one daily dosing with aminoglycosides is false ? (a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy (b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal ... often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens (e) Under-dosing is less of a problem

Last Answer : Ans: B

Pentamidine should be used to treat Kala azar only when sodium stibogluconate has failed or is not tolerated because: A. It achieves lower cure rates B. It is more toxic C. It requires a longer course of treatment D. Relapses are more common with it

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Last Answer : B. It is more toxic

Practically all antineoplastic drugs can produce the following toxic effects except: A. Depression of leucocyte count B. Mucositis C. Cardiomyopathy D. Oligozoospermia

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Last Answer : C. Cardiomyopathy

After treating intestinal amoebiasis with metronidazole, a course of diloxanide furoate is often advised to: A. Cure any subclinical hepatic involvement B. Suppress the symbiotic intestinal flora C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : C. Eradicate luminal cyst forming trophozoites

Mesalazine (coated 5-amino salicylic acid) differs from sulfasalazine in that: A. It is more effective in ulcerative colitis B. It produces less adverse effect C. It has no therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The positive inotropic action of digoxin takes several hours to develop because: A. Binding of digoxin to Na+K+ATPase is slow B. After Na+K+ATPase inhibition by digoxin, Ca2+ loading of myocardial fibres occurs progressively with each contraction C. Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase through modification of gene function which takes time D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

The following is true of cancer chemotherapy: A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later B. All anticancer drugs are highly emetogenic C. Growth fraction of cancers is higher than any nomral tissue of the body Aim4aiims.in D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. Anticancer drugs increase the risk of developing leukaemias and lymphomas several years later

The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated doses C. The same regimen which is palliative for a large solid tumour may be curative after surgical removal of the tumour D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

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Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

The regimens recommended for treatment of chloroquine resistant P.falciparum malaria in an adult include the following except: A. Quinine 10 mg/kg/8 hourly+ doxycycline 100 mg/day for 7 days B. Quinine 10 mg/kg 3 times a day × 7 days with pyrimethamine 75 mg + sulfadoxine 1500 mg on first day C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days D. Artemether 80 mg i.m./twice on first day followed by once daily for 4 days

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Last Answer : C. Mefloquine 0.5 g daily for 7 days

Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens: A. Norfloxacin B. Ofloxacin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Lomefloxacin

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Last Answer : B. Ofloxacin

Though ethacrynic acid is also a high ceiling diuretic, it is practically not used because: A. It is more ototoxic B. It causes diarrhoea and gut bleeding C. Its response increases steeply over a narrow dose range D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

Omeprazole exerts practically no other action except inhibition of gastric acid secretion because: A. It transforms into the active cationic forms only in the acidic pH of the gastric juice B. Its active forms have selective affinity for the H+K+ATPase located in the apical canaliculi of gastric parietal cells C. Its cationic forms are unable to diffuse out from the gastric parietal cell canaliculi D. All of the above

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Last Answer : D. All of the above

Thioguanine differs from mercaptopurine in that: A. It is not metabolized by xanthine oxidase B. It does not cause hyperuricemia C. Its dose need not be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Choose the correct statement about topotecan: A. It is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor which causes single strand DNA breaks B. It is a cell cycle specific anticancer drug C. It is a COMT-inhibitor used in advanced parkinsonism D. Both 'A' and 'B' are correc

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Radical cure of vivax malaria should be attempted in: A. Areas where only sporadic cases occur B. Endemic areas with effective vector control measures C. Endemic areas not covered by vector control D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. It is combined with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

The characteristic feature(s) of penicillin G is/are: A. It is unstable in aqueous solution B. Its antibacterial action is unaffected by pus and tissue fluids C. It is equally active against resting and multiplying bacteria D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Select the first line hypolipidemic drug/drugs for treating hypertriglyceridemia in a subject with normal cholesterol level: A. Fibrates B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Nicotinic acid D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'C' are correct

Digoxin affords the following benefit/benefits in CHF: A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms B. Reverses the pathological changes of CHF C. Prolongs survival of CHF patients D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

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Last Answer : A. Restores cardiac compensation and relieves symptoms

Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

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Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

Praziquantel is preferred over niclosamide for Taenia solium infestation because: A. It achieves higher cure rates B. It produces fewer side effects C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

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Last Answer : C. It does not lead to digestion of worm and kills encysted larvae, so that chances of cysticercosis are minimized

Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition: A. Septic shock B. Renal transplant C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Description : Corticosteroid therapy is practically mandatory in the following condition: A. Septic shock B. Renal transplant C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Last Answer : B. Renal transplan

Gentamicin differs from streptomycin in that: A. It is less nephrotoxic B. It is used for pseudomonas infections C. It is not effective in tuberculosis D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

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Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Colorectal carcinoma

Description : Which of the following neoplastic diseases is almost curable by chemotherapy: A. Bronchogenic carcinoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Malignant melanoma D. Colorectal carcinoma

Last Answer : B. Choriocarcinoma

Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine

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Last Answer : B. Dexamethasone

Granisetron is a: A. Second generation antihistaminic B. Drug for peptic ulcer C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy D. New antiarrhythmic drug

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Last Answer : C. Antiemetic for cancer chemotherapy

The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia

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Last Answer : A. They are more efficacious

Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. a) All of the mentioned are true b) (ii) and (iii) are true c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d) None of the mentioned

Description : Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. ... ) are true c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d) None of the mentioned

Last Answer : a) All of the mentioned are true

Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. a) All of the mentioned are true b) (ii) and (iii) are true c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d) None of the mentioned

Description : Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works ... ) are true c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d) None of the mentioned

Last Answer : a) All of the mentioned are true

Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited capacitor when checking its condition with an ohmmeter? A. The capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal. B. The reading is practically zero and remains there. C. The capacitor shows no charging action, but indicates a very high resistance. D. The pointer moves quickly to the low resistance side of the scale, then slowly recedes toward infinity.

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Last Answer : Answer: B

The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

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Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

Use of artemisinin derivatives is restricted to treatment of multidrug resistant falciparum malaria because: A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strains B. They are not active against P.vivax C. They are more toxic than quinine D. All of the above are correct

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Last Answer : A. Wide spread use for all cases of malaria may foster development of resistant strain

Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Description : Proguanil is not used as a clinical curative in malaria because: A. Its schizontocidal action is slow B. Resistance to proguanil is widespread C. It is more toxic than chloroquine D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. Its schizontocidal action is slow

The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Description : The following statement is true about ketoconazole except: A. It is less toxic than amphotericin B B. It produces a slower response than amphotericin B in systemic mycosis C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis D. It is not effective in fungal meningitis

Last Answer : C. Given orally it is the first line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Description : Choose the correct statement(s) about auranofin: A. It is an orally active gold compound B. It is equally effective but less toxic than injected gold-sodium-thiomalate C. Its major adverse effect is dermatitis D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : A. It is an orally active gold compound

Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it: A. Antagonises the actions of methanol B. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite D. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methano

Description : Ethanol is used in methanol poisoning because it: A. Antagonises the actions of methanol B. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol and reduces its blood level C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite D. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methano

Last Answer : C. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and generation of toxic metabolite

N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of paracetamol C. It is a free radical scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Description : N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because: A. It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex B. It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of ... scavenger D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

Last Answer : D. It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol

In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Description : In the short course regimen for treatment of tuberculosis, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are used for: A. Initial one month B. Initial two months C. Last two months D. Throughout the course

Last Answer : B. Initial two months

Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Description : Multidrug resistant (MDR) tuberculosis is defined as resistance to: A. Any two or more antitubercular drugs B. Isoniazid + any other antitubercular drug C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs D. All five first line antitubercular drugs

Last Answer : C. Isoniazid + Rifampin + any one or more antitubercular drugs

ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of pulmonary tuberculosis B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis C. Sputum positive patients of pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Description : ifampin + pyrazinamide for initial 2 months followed by isoniazid + rifampin for another 4 months for the following category of tubercular patients: A. New sputum positive cases of ... pulmonary tuberculosis who have interrupted treatment for more than 2 months D. Tubercular meningitis patients

Last Answer : B. New sputum negative cases of pulmonary tuberculosis

Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. Produces more rapid sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Addition of pyrazinamide and ethambutol for the first two months to the isoniazid + rifampin therapy of tuberculosis serves the following purpose(s): A. Reduces the total duration of therapy to 6 months B. ... sputum conversion C. Permits reduction of rifampin dose D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correc

In a set a reactions p-nitrtoluene yielded a product E. The product E would be :

Description : In a set a reactions p-nitrtoluene yielded a product E. The product E would be :

Last Answer : In a set a reactions p-nitrtoluene yielded a product E. The product E would be : A. B. C. D.

In a set of reactions acid yielded a compound D. The strucuture of D would be :

Description : In a set of reactions acid yielded a compound D. The strucuture of D would be :

Last Answer : In a set of reactions acid yielded a compound D. The strucuture of D would be : A. B. C. D.

Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid C. All 5 first line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Description : Mycobact. tuberculosis infection in a HIV infected patient is treated with: A. The same antitubercular regimen as HIV negative patient B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed ... line antitubercular drugs for 9 months D. Clarithromycin + Ciprofloxacin + Rifabutin for 12 months

Last Answer : B. Four first line antitubercular drugs for 2 months followed by a longer continuation phase of 7 months with rifampin + isoniazid

Corticosteroids are absolutely contraindicated in the following type of tuberculosis: A. Miliary B. Meningeal C. Intestinal D. Renal

Description : Corticosteroids are absolutely contraindicated in the following type of tuberculosis: A. Miliary B. Meningeal C. Intestinal D. Renal

Last Answer : C. Intestinal

A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Description : A woman aged 25 years is diagnosed to be suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. She is also 8 weeks pregnant. Antitubercular therapy for her should be: A. Started immediately B. Delayed till end of first trimester C. Delayed till end of second trimester D. Delayed till after confinement

Last Answer : . Started immediately