Description : The Cyclomatic Complexity, V(G) was developed by A. Howard B. McCabe C. Boehm D. None of the above.
Last Answer : B. McCabe
Description : The cyclomatic complexity of a flow graph V(G), in terms of predicate nodes is: (A) P + 1 (B) P - 1 (C) P - 2 (D) P + 2 Where P is number of predicate nodes in flow graph V(G).
Last Answer : (A) P + 1
Description : Which one of the following is used to compute cyclomatic complexity ? (A) The number of regions - 1 (B) E - N + 1, where E is the number of flow graph edges and N is the number of flow graph nodes. (C) ... in the flow graph G. (D) P + 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.
Last Answer : (D) P + 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.
Description : How is cyclomatic complexity useful in program test? What is sequence of testing? What is testability?
Last Answer : Ans. Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in a single software module. It is used for two related purposes in the structured testing methodology. First, it gives the number of ... a lack of testability may hinder testing parts of the software or software requirements at all.
Description : Which is not a size metric? (A) LOC (B) Function count (C) Program length (D) Cyclomatic complexity
Last Answer : (D) Cyclomatic complexity
Description : Cyclometric complexity of a flow graph G with n vertices and e edges is (A) V(G) = e+n-2 (B) V(G) = e-n+2 (C) V(G) = e+n+2 (D) V(G) = e-n-2
Last Answer : (B) V(G) = e-n+2
Description : Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:- i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, ... ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
Description : Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are ... iv are true, i, iii & v are false d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
Last Answer : c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
Description : Consider the following statements: i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision ... & v are False d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Last Answer : d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Description : This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks This statement is best suited for A. Water fall model B. Spiral model C. Incremental model D. V-Model Q33. The bug tracking ... these phases for each bug. I. Phase injected II. Phase detected III. Phase fixed IV. Phase removed
Last Answer : B. I, II and IV
Description : In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component integration testing ... after system testing. A. Water Fall Model B.V-Model C. Spiral Model D. RAD Model
Last Answer : B.V-Model
Description : In data flow testing, objective is to find A. All dc-paths that are not du-paths B. V All du-paths C. All du-paths that are not dc-paths D. All dc-paths
Last Answer : C. All du-paths that are not dc-paths
Description : The size of the graph matrix is A. Number of edges in the flow graph B. V Number of nodes in the flow graph C. Number of paths in the flow graph D. Number of independent paths.
Last Answer : B. V Number of nodes in the flow graph
Description : Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 thenPrint Large End if If p > 50 then Print pLarge End if a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch ... c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Last Answer : c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
Description : The following code segment contains a potential "divide by 0" error.J=50,K=1while (N>=−10) and (N
Last Answer : D. Source code inspection
Description : Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition? If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone ... 17, 18, 19. B. 29, 30, 31. C. 18, 29, 30. D. 17, 29, 31.
Last Answer : C. 18, 29, 30.
Description : ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one A. 0,1,2,99 B. 1, 99, 100, 98 C. 0, 1, 99, 100 D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Last Answer : C. 0, 1, 99, 100
Description : The hydrocarbon having the general formula C n H 2n is
Last Answer : alkene.
Description : Hydrocarbons having the general formula C n H 2n+2 are called
Last Answer : alkanes.
Description : Give the general name of the class of compounds having the general formula C n H 2n-2 . Write the first member of this homologous series.
Last Answer : Alkynes. The first member is Ethyne.
Description : The general formula of a homologous series of carbon compounds is C n H 2n . Write the molecular formula of the second and fourth member of the series.
Last Answer : Second member is n=3, C 3 H 2x3 = C 3 H 6 Fourth member is n=5, C 5 H 2x5 = C 5 H 10
Description : Write the molecular formulae of the third and fifth member of homologous series of carbon compounds represented by the general formula C n H 2n+2
Last Answer : Third member n = 3, C 3 H 2x3+2 = C 3 H 8 Fifth member n = 5, C 5 H 2x5+2 = C 5 H 12
Description : Portability falls under _______ A. Compliance testing B. Disaster testing C. Verifying compliance to rules D. Functional testing E. Ease of operations
Last Answer : B. Disaster testing
Description : Security falls under _______ A. Compliance testing B. Disaster testing C. Verifying compliance to rules D. Functional testing E. Ease of operations
Last Answer : A. Compliance testing
Description : Operations testing is _______ A. Compliance testing B. Disaster testing C. Verifying compliance to rules D. Functional testing E. Ease of operations
Last Answer : E. Ease of operations
Description : Testing techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are A. Structural B. Functional C. Usability D. A and B E. B and C
Last Answer : D. A and B
Description : Test summary report A. Functional testing is mostly B. Validation techniques C. Verification techniques D. Both of the above E. None of the above
Last Answer : B. Validation techniques
Description : Simplify : `p^(n+1)xxp^(2n+1)xxp^(3-n)`
Last Answer : Simplify : `p^(n+1)xxp^(2n+1)xxp^(3-n)`
Description : Range of accelerating factor is a) 50 to 100 b) 1.3 to 1.7 c) 1 to 10 d) 10.8 to 11.2
Last Answer : b) 1.3 to 1.7
Description : The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as a) Configuration Control b) Status Accounting c) Configuration Identification d) Configuration Identification
Last Answer : The provision and management of a controlled library containing all the configuration items is called Configuration Management. Configuration Management is the process of identifying, organizing, and ... Verification and Audit (ensuring that the configuration items are complete and accurate).
Description : In case of Large Systems :- a) Only few tests should be run b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed. d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
Last Answer : b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
Description : Exit Criteria may consist of :- i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or ... correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Last Answer : b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
Description : Drivers are also known as: i. Spade ii. Test harness iii. Scaffolding a) i , ii are true and iii is false b) i , iii are true and ii is false
Last Answer : c) ii , iii are true and i is false
Description : Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? a) Top down b) Big-bang c) Bottom up d) Functional incrementation.
Last Answer : b) Big-bang
Description : Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :- a) The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the ... does what it is supposed to do. d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Last Answer : d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Description : Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. a) i , ii , ... false c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false d) All of above are true
Last Answer : c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
Description : Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader: i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the ... is true and ii,iii,iv are false d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Last Answer : a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
Description : The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : - a) Anomaly Report b) Defect Report c) Test Defect Report d) Test Incident Report
Last Answer : a) Anomaly Report
Description : Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :- Disc = 0 Order-qty = 0 Read Order-qty If Order-qty >=20 then Disc = 0.05 If Order-qty >=100 then Disc =0.1 End if End if a) Statement coverage is 4 b) Statement coverage is 1
Last Answer : b) Statement coverage is 1
Description : Benefits of Independent Testing a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects. d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
Last Answer : b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
Description : Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:- a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques. b) Equivalence partitioning ... , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
Last Answer : c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
Description : Test Conditions are derived from :- a) Specifications b) Test Cases c) Test Data d) Test Design
Last Answer : a) Specifications
Description : Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct b ... ,iv are incorrect. c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect d) iv, ii is correct
Last Answer : a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
Description : Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on ... and ii is incorrect c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct d) ii is correct
Last Answer : a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
Description : Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? a) State transition testing b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) c) syntax testing d) boundary value analysis
Last Answer : b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
Description : Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process? a) Test Planning and Control b) Test implementation and Execution c) Requirement Analysis d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
Last Answer : c) Requirement Analysis
Description : Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests iii. Low-level design c System tests iv. Business requirements d Integration tests a) i-d , ii ... i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Last Answer : d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Description : The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :- a) Explaining the objective b) Fixing defects found typically done by author c) Follow up d) Individual Meeting preparations
Last Answer : a) Explaining the objective
Description : Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthroughc) Technical Review d) Formal Review
Last Answer : Technical Review
Description : . Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.Which of the following represents an invalid state transition? a) OFF to ON b) ON to OFF c) FAULT to ON Q15. Peer Reviews are also called as :- a) Inspection b) Walkthrough
Last Answer : c) FAULT to ON