To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have:  
a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days  
b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days  
c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days  
d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
by

Related questions

What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days

Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

Last Answer : b. increased

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

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Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False

Last Answer : b. False

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Description : If a CSD overheat warning is shown: a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator c. The ... temperature has reduced d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Last Answer : d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Description : What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height? a. Fail soft b. Fail passive c. Fail operational or fail active d. Land 2 system

Last Answer : D. All of the above

What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Description : Where a medium category aeroplane is landing behind a heavy category aeroplane, the minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Last Answer : c. 5

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Description : Where a light category aeroplane is landing behind a medium category aeroplane, minimum separation distance in NM is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3

Last Answer : b. 5

In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Last Answer : a. ATC

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Description : The loading limitations shall include: a. All limiting mass and centre of gravity b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing c. All limiting mass ... of gravity position and floor loading d. All limiting mass, mass distributions and centre of gravity

Last Answer : b. All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor landing

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Description : What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down? a. The gear is down b. The gear is down and locked c. The gear and doors are down and locked d. The gear is travelling between up and down

Last Answer : b. The gear is down and locked

A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed

Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Last Answer : a. 285, TO

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus

Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo

What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted

Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted

What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments

Last Answer : d. Instruments

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday

Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing

With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions

Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions