Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km
Last Answer : a. 25nm
Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm
Last Answer : c. 25nm
Description : The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25% of range c. 0.5nm d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range
Last Answer : d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication
Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication
Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm
Last Answer : a. 3.5nm
Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track
Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track
Description : An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084
Last Answer : c. 094
Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM
Last Answer : a. 285, TO
Description : The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used
Last Answer : a. Are magnetic
Description : A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above
Last Answer : b. VOR/DME
Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route
Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route
Description : In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise
Last Answer : a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise
Description : DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required
Last Answer : c. Cockpit workload is reduced
Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground
Last Answer : a. On the ground only
Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency
Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry
Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
Description : .Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size (a) 300 × 10nm (b) 300 × 5nm (c) 300 × 20nm (d) 700 × 30nm.
Last Answer : (c) 300 × 20nm
Description : A train 560 m long crosses the platform of length 340 m in 45seconds. Find the speed of the train in km/hr A) 72km/hr B) 36km/hr C) 48km/hr D) 15km/hr
Last Answer : ANSWER:A Explanation: Length of the train = 560 m Length of the platform = 340 m Therefore, length of the train + length of the platform = 560 m + 340 m = 900 m Time taken by the train to cross the ... to km/hr, multiply by 18/5 Therefore, speed of the train = 20 18/5 km/hr = 72 km/hr
Description : A motorboat can cover 80 km upstream and 120 km downstream together in 26 hours. Also it can cover 100 km upstream and 144 km downstream together in 32 hours. What is the speed of the motorboat in still water? A) 12 km/hr B) 15km/hr C) 8.5km/hr D) 19km/hr
Last Answer : ANSWER :C Explanation: Upstream speed in both cases is 80 and 100. Ratio is 80 : 100 = 8:10 = 4 : 5. So let times in both cases be 4x and 5x Downstream speed in both cases is 120 and 144 resp. Ratio is ... 12 km/hr So speed of boat = 1/2 * (5+12) =17/2km/hr speed of boat = 8.5 km/hr
Description : A pedal boat goes 12km upstream and 14km downstream in 3hrs. It goes 15km upstream and 10.5km downstream in 3 hrs 15mints. The speed of the boat in still water is A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
Last Answer : ANSWER: A
Last Answer : MSA - Maritime Safety Agency
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment
Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll
Description : If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same
Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper
Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1
Last Answer : b. 15:1
Description : What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack b. The same true ... c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack d. A constant angle of attack and true airspeed
Last Answer : a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind
Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack
Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack
Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt
Last Answer : c. 99kt
Description : A yaw damper: a. Increases rudder effectiveness b. Must be disengaged before making a turn c. Augments stability d. Increases the rate of yaw
Last Answer : c. Augments stability
Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase
Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
Last Answer : b. increased
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps
Last Answer : c. The elevators
Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed
Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag