Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm
Last Answer : a. 3.5nm
Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm
Last Answer : c. 25nm
Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response
Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station
Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range
Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track
Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track
Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km
Last Answer : a. 25nm
Description : A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above
Last Answer : b. VOR/DME
Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route
Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route
Description : DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required
Last Answer : c. Cockpit workload is reduced
Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground
Last Answer : a. On the ground only
Description : Which of the following is a primary radar system? a. SSR b. DME c. GPS d. AWR
Last Answer : d. AWR
Description : A typical DME frequency is: a. 1000 MHz b. 1300 MHz c. 1000 kHz d. 1575 MHz
Last Answer : a. 1000 MHz
Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%
Last Answer : d. 2%
Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust
Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
Description : TAFs are usually valid for: a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours c. For 24 hours d. For 8 hours
Last Answer : a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself
Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off
Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time
Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude
Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude
Description : Total Air Temperature is: a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise
Last Answer : a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically
Description : The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
Last Answer : d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
Description : In what range is GPWS operative? a. 2450 – 0 ft b. 3000 – 50 ft c. 2450 – 50 ft d. 3000 – 0 ft
Last Answer : c. 2450 – 50 ft
Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases
Description : The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is: a. Higher maximum thrust available b. Higher maximum efficiency c. More blade surface area available d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Last Answer : d. Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
Description : What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate
Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate
Description : Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C
Last Answer : d. C
Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft
Last Answer : c. 36,100ft
Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island
Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island
Description : How do misty/foggy conditions affect the pilot's judgment on the approach? a. Underestimating range due to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass b. Underestimating range due to the ... to illusionary effect through the cockpit glass d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Last Answer : d. Overestimating range due to the lights appearing dim
Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days
Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days
Description : Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere? a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Tropopause d. Mesosphere
Last Answer : a. Troposphere
Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins
Last Answer : c. 30 mins
Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel
Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA
Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line
Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line
Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C
Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC
Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight
Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track
Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
Description : A nose wheel control system a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position c. Allows the nosewheel to ... freely at all times d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised
Last Answer : b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
Description : What is the value of Three-Year 4.25% Annual Coupon Bond Puttable at Par one year from now if one year forward rates at T (0), T (1) and T (2) are 2.50%, 3% and 4.5% respectively? a) 101.54 b) 101.71 c) 102.67 d) 102.89
Last Answer : c) 102.67
Description : Present rate of interested on on 1, 2, 4, 5 years fixed deposit(TD) is a) 6.25%, 6.50%, 7.25%, 7.50% b) 7.25%, 7.50%, 8%, 8.2% c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5% d) None of these
Last Answer : c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5%
Description : A vendor bought 30 dozen bananas at Rs.16 per dozen. He sold 10 dozens at Rs.20 per dozen and 16 dozens at Rs.25 per dozen. The remaining 4 dozens were rotten and he threw away. Find his profit percentage. a)20% b)25% c)30% d)33 1/3%
Last Answer : b)25%
Description : A shopkeeper marked a suit at Rs.400. He sold it after allowing a discount, and still made at a profit of 25%. At what percentage above its cost price did he marked the suit, if he sold it for Rs.320? a)50% b)66 2/3% c)62 1/2% d)56 1/4%
Last Answer : d)56 1/4%
Description : The loss made by selling 16 m of a cloth equals the selling price of 4 m of that cloth. Find the loss percentage a)15% b)20% c)33 1/3% d)25%
Last Answer : b)20%