To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx) c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)

To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with:  
a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)  
b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)  
c. Flaps retracted and at best rate of climb speed (Vy)  
d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
by

Related questions

When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

Description : When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

Last Answer : b. When 35 feet is reached

The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce the approach angle to 1.5deg (150ft/mile), add 15kts to all speeds, keep the aeroplane clean (no flaps or gear) and fly it into the surface c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Description : The method of alighting the aeroplane on water during a ditching is to: a. Carry out a normal approach with flaps and gear selected as normal but to calculate all speeds plus 10kts b. Reduce ... d. Fly a normal approach to stalling speed and then drop the aeroplane vertically onto the water

Last Answer : c. Fly a normal approach but keep the gear up and land at lowest possible speed with the nose raised for the tail to strike first

What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps? a. Increased minimum glide angle b. Decreased minimum glide angle c. Increased glide range d. Decreased sink rate

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Last Answer : d. Decreased sink rate

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

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Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

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Last Answer : c. 25nm

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will: a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper b. Increase but glide angle will remain the same c. Decrease d. Remain the same

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Last Answer : a. Increase and glide angle will be steeper

If a landing is to be made without flaps, the landing speed must be: a. reduced b. increased c. the same as for landing with flaps d. the same as for landing with flaps but with a steeper approach

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Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons

Description : Which of the following increases the stall angle? a. Slats b. Flaps c. Spoilers d. Ailerons

Last Answer : a. Slats

Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

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Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

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Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

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Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur? a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture b. Cruise power c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture d. Max take-off power

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Last Answer : a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture

The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Description : The control surface which gives longitudinal control is: a. The rudder b. The ailerons c. The elevators d. The flaps

Last Answer : c. The elevators

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

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Last Answer : b. Descend

When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin? a. When V2 is reached b. When 35 feet is reached c. When flaps are up d. When gear and flaps are up

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Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the heading b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft c. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

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The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

Description : The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made: a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only

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The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. Your last clearance is confirmed b. Your last clearance has been cancelled c. You may proceed as you please d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

Description : The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. Your last clearance is confirmed b. Your last clearance has been cancelled c. You may proceed as you please d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance

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An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Last Answer : c. 6300 ft

If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate: a. Zero b. Climb c. Descent d. Reducing pressure

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Last Answer : b. Climb

When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

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Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM c. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for take-offs d. As the propeller control setting is changed by the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes

Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say

Last Answer : a. Ignore

The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO

Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO

Last Answer : c. DELIVERY

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

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Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Description : To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Airspeeed (IAS) is reduced? a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag d. Reduce thrust

Last Answer : b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force

Which stall has the greatest angle of attack? a. Low speed stall b. High speed stall (shock stall) c. Deep stall d. Accelerated stall

Description : Which stall has the greatest angle of attack? a. Low speed stall b. High speed stall (shock stall) c. Deep stall d. Accelerated stall

Last Answer : c. Deep stall

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Description : The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Last Answer : b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed

If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Description : If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause: a. An increased angle of bank b. An increased rate of roll c. No change to either bank angle or roll rate d. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment

Last Answer : b. An increased rate of roll

An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn? a. 30° b. 12° c. 18° d. 35°

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn? a. 30° b. 12° c. 18° d. 35°

Last Answer : c. 18°

What would you say to someone who had 10 seconds left to climb a 15 foot rope to finish an obstacle course?

Description : What would you say to someone who had 10 seconds left to climb a 15 foot rope to finish an obstacle course?

Last Answer : “I’m setting fire to the bottom of this rope. The fire will engulf the entire rope within 11 seconds.”

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Last Answer : c. 25nm

An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Description : An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent? a. 500 ft/min b. 300 ft/min c. 250 ft/min d. 600 ft/min

Last Answer : a. 500 ft/min