Could this be nerve damage as a result of gerbil bite?

Could this be nerve damage as a result of gerbil bite?
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He bit the outside of your finger?
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Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Description : Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. b) Sciatic Injury to the ... footdrop. d) Achilles Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Bubonic plague occurs a) after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic refers to enlarged lymph nodes that develop after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.

Description : Bubonic plague occurs a) after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic refers to enlarged lymph nodes that develop after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic plague is the form seen ... frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.

Last Answer : a) after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic refers to enlarged lymph nodes that develop after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

The damage to the-----nerve could result in the defect of the eye movement: A. Optic B. Trigeminal C. Abducens (Answer) D. none

Description : The damage to the-----nerve could result in the defect of the eye movement: A. Optic B. Trigeminal C. Abducens (Answer) D. none

Last Answer : C. Abducens (Answer)

Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Description : Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to ... syndrome Impingement syndrome is associated with the shoulder and may progress to a rotator cuff tear.

Last Answer : a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy. b) Involucrum ... cavity. d) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle or fibrosis of joint structures.

Last Answer : a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. b) Scotoma Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific ... edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

Last Answer : a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

Description : Bell's palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell's palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis b) Trigeminal (V) Trigeminal neuralgia is a disorder ... the vestibulocochlear nerve. d) Vagus (X) Guillain-Barre syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve.

Last Answer : a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication. b) ... The facial nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction ... (VII) nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is ... mastication. d) facial The facial (VII) nerve controls facial expression and muscle movement.

Last Answer : a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

Last Answer : a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

is gerbil food kosher for passover?

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Last Answer : Commercial gerbil food is not kosher for Pesach. But don't worry, there's lots feed your pet - alfafa grass, alfafa pellets, sunflower seeds, dried corn, fresh or home cooked veggies and fruits. I would ... food gradually to your pet's diet beginning now so that his (or her) tummy won't be upset.

Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Description : Regarding emergency procedures at the burn scene, the nurse teaches which of the following guidelines? a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to ... . Such procedures may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Last Answer : a) Never wrap burn victims in ice. Such procedure may worsen the tissue damage and lead to hypothermia in patients with large burns.

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

Description : A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand. b) elbow ... a fracture of the distal radius. d) clavicle. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.

Last Answer : a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

Description : Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction ... strokes. d) Intracerebral aneurysm rupture Intracerebral aneurysm rupture is associated with hemorrhagic strokes.

Last Answer : a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Description : Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. ... Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia.

Last Answer : a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma. b) Hemarthrosis Hemarthrosis refers to bleeding ... joint with two freely moveable parts. d) Arthroplasty Arthroplasty refers to replacement of a joint.

Last Answer : a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Description : Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress ... the involuntary loss of urine due to involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.

Last Answer : a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Description : Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot ... is the result of liver disease. d) Non-obstructive Non-obstructive jaundice occurs with hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

Description : What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection. b) Hernias Hernias are one of the second most ... d) Volvulus Volvulus (twisting of the bowel) is a less common cause of small bowel obstruction.

Last Answer : a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi-mushy. With a descending colostomy, the feces are semi-mushy. c) mushy. With a transverse colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid. b) semi- ... colostomy, the feces are mushy. d) fluid. With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

Last Answer : a) solid. With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid.

Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. b) Saccular Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. c) False In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma. d) Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Description : Which of the following types of aneurysms results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall? a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding ... Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

Last Answer : a) Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate. c) Stimulation, only Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate. d) Depression, only Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Description : Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result ... nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Last Answer : a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Description : 69. When Marina checked the capillary blood glucose of the client at 6 PM before meals as instructed by the senior nurse, the result showed 65 mg/dl. Which of the following will Marina do first?

Last Answer : C. Check the physician’s order in case CBG is below 70 mg/dl

A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Description : A staff nurse was found charting blood glucose result without actually doing the procedure. What is the appropriate initial action of the senior nurse? A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary B. Go on leave without pay C. Write an incident report D. Explain to the patient

Last Answer : A. Write and submit an explanation and reprimand as necessary

Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

Description : Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC ... in humans has increased within the past two decades or threaten to increase in the near future.

Last Answer : a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.