What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?
a) Adhesions
Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and
infection.
b) Hernias
Hernias are one of the second most common causes of small bowel
obstruction.
c) Neoplasms
Neoplasms are one the second most common causes of small bowel
obstruction.
d) Volvulus
Volvulus (twisting of the bowel) is a less common cause of small bowel
obstruction.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Adhesions
Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and
infection.
by

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Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. c) Hyperactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Description : A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is ... . d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Last Answer : a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

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Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

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Last Answer : a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

A 47-year-old patient undergoing a complicated laparotomy for bowel obstruction develops a postoperative enterocutaneous fistula. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning parenteral nutritional support in the postoperative period? a. Oral intake can result in severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and perifistula skin injury b. Total parenteral nutrition increases the spontaneous closure rate of intestinal fistula c. Total parenteral nutrition decreases mortality rate in patients with intestinal fistulas d. The use of TPN better prepares the patient for surgery if surgical intervention proves necessary

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Patients with gastrointestinal-cutaneous fistulas represent the classical indication for TPN. In such patients, oral intake of food almost invariably results in increased ... treated more aggressively surgically after a defined period of nutritional support (unless closure occurs)

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

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Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests a) Inflammatory colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory colitis or enteritis. b) Small bowel disease Watery stools are characteristic of small bowel disease. c) Disorders of the colon Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. d) Intestinal malabsorption Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

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Last Answer : a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

Small Bowel Obstruction?

Description : Small Bowel Obstruction?

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Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

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Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

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Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

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Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy

Description : Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy

Last Answer : Ans: A

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

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Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

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Description : Crohn's disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn's disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur ... to lactose intolerance. d) gastric resection. Postoperative malabsorption occurs after gastric or intestinal resection.

Last Answer : a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b) Parotitis Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. c) Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

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Last Answer : a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate.

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

54. Albert is prescribed NSAID every four hours to relieve, fever, inflammation, and pericardial pain. To maximize the effect of the drug, the nurse would administer it

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Last Answer : C. Round the clock on a consistent basis

Gastroenteritis can result in a. an intestinal inflammation. b. an infection. c. an intoxication d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Description : Gastroenteritis can result in a. an intestinal inflammation. b. an infection. c. an intoxication d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Last Answer : d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Description : Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. b) Sciatic Injury to the ... footdrop. d) Achilles Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

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Last Answer : a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation.

Which of the following is staphylococcal infection: A. Scarlet fever (Streptococcus pyogenes)Bright red tongue with a "strawberry" appearance Forchheimer spots (fleeting small, red spots on the soft palate) may occur B. Pericarditis ( inflammation, caused by viral infection, idiopathic, Mycobacterium t C. Pancreatitis no D. Carbuncle

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Last Answer : D. Carbuncle

Why does The fungus damages bat wings causing small holes and scar tissue to appear in the membranes. What is a possible effect of this damage to bat wings?

Description : Why does The fungus damages bat wings causing small holes and scar tissue to appear in the membranes. What is a possible effect of this damage to bat wings?

Last Answer : idk maybe because they are stinky

Do you know any home remedies for ear infection?

Description : Do you know any home remedies for ear infection?

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The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a a) mode of entry to host. The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.

Description : The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a ... of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.

Last Answer : a) mode of entry to host. The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

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Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for hepatitis B is a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually. b) 15-50 days. The incubation ... 6-9 months. d) unclear. The incubation periods for hepatitis D, E, and G are unclear.

Last Answer : a) 45-160 days. Hepatitis B is responsible for more than 200 deaths of healthcare workers annually.

The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

Description : The usual incubation period (infection to first symptom) for AIDS is a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact. b) 3-6 months. The incubation period for HIV ... than 1 year. d) 5 years. The incubation period for HIV infection is greater than 5 years.

Last Answer : a) 10 years. HIV is transmitted through sexual, percutaneous, or perinatal contact.

Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

Description : Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC ... in humans has increased within the past two decades or threaten to increase in the near future.

Last Answer : a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.

Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Description : Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas ... Comedone. Comedones are the primary lesions of acne, caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle.

Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

Last Answer : a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

Description : When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a ... the external vulva and vaginal walls. d) chlamydia. Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

Last Answer : a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Description : A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is ... chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

Last Answer : a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Description : If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area ... it is clamped because it may cause backflow of urine from the tubing into the bladder.

Last Answer : a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation). b) anorectal abscess. An anorectal abscess is an infection in the pararectal spaces. c) anal fistula. An anal fistula is a tiny, tubular, fibrous tract that extends into the anal canal from an opening located beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Description : A longitudinal tear or ulceration in the lining of the anal canal is termed a (an) a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent ... beside the anus. d) hemorrhoid. A hemorrhoid is a dilated portion of vein in the anal canal.

Last Answer : a) anal fissure. Fissures are usually caused by the trauma of passing a large, firm stool or from persistent tightening of the anal canal secondary to stress or anxiety (leading to constipation).