Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
a) Peroneal
Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
b) Sciatic
Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
c) Femoral
Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
d) Achilles
Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Peroneal
Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of
footdrop.
by

Related questions

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) A semi-sitting position in bed Semi-fowlers positioning is used to decrease the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm. c) A sitting position with legs hanging off the side of the bed In order to prevent footdrop, the feet must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Description : To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) ... must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used.

Could this be nerve damage as a result of gerbil bite?

Description : Could this be nerve damage as a result of gerbil bite?

Last Answer : He bit the outside of your finger?

Common peroneal nerve dysfunction?

Description : Common peroneal nerve dysfunction?

Last Answer : DefinitionCommon peroneal nerve dysfunction is damage to the peroneal nerve leading to loss of movement or sensation in the foot and leg.Alternative NamesNeuropathy - common peroneal nerve; ... the nerve damage, although certain bodywide conditions may also cause isolated nerve injuries.Damage

Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Description : Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An ... lower blood pressure. d) Voiding The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia is a distended bladder.

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Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration. b) 10-15 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 10–15 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. c) 30-35 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 30–35 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is overinflated. d) 0-5 mm Hg water pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Description : Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the ... pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Last Answer : a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration.

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

Description : What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection. b) Hernias Hernias are one of the second most ... d) Volvulus Volvulus (twisting of the bowel) is a less common cause of small bowel obstruction.

Last Answer : a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

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Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate. c) Stimulation, only Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate. d) Depression, only Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

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The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

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Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

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A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

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Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

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When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

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The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to: a) decrease catabolism. The most important intervention in the nutritional support of a patient with a burn injury is to provide adequate nutrition and calories to decrease catabolism. Nutritional support with optimized protein intake can decrease the protein losses by approximately 50%.

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Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

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When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Which of the following terms refers to a graft derived from one part of a patient’s body and used on another part of that same patient’s body? a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

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Last Answer : a) Autograft Autografts of full-thickness and pedicle flaps are commonly used for reconstructive surgery, months or years after the initial injury.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

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Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Description : Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to ... syndrome Impingement syndrome is associated with the shoulder and may progress to a rotator cuff tear.

Last Answer : a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy. b) Involucrum ... cavity. d) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle or fibrosis of joint structures.

Last Answer : a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe edema of the optic nerve? a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. b) Scotoma Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific ... edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

Last Answer : a) Papilledema Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve.

Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

Description : Bell's palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell's palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis b) Trigeminal (V) Trigeminal neuralgia is a disorder ... the vestibulocochlear nerve. d) Vagus (X) Guillain-Barre syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve.

Last Answer : a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication. b) ... The facial nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction ... (VII) nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is ... mastication. d) facial The facial (VII) nerve controls facial expression and muscle movement.

Last Answer : a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

Last Answer : a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Description : Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress ... the involuntary loss of urine due to involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.

Last Answer : a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Does a pinched nerve cause long term injury?

Description : Does a pinched nerve cause long term injury?

Last Answer : A pinched nerve is a condition that may last several months or longer, and be the cause of extreme discomfort. If this condition persists and does not go away on its own, pain relievers such as ... needed to alleviate the pain, and a trip to the doctor, chiropractor, or neurologist may be required.

Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. b) Essential Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. c) Primary Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. d) Secondary Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma). b) primary. Primary hypertension has no known underlying cause. c) essential. Essential hypertension has no known underlying cause. d) isolated systolic. Isolated systolic hypertension is demonstrated by readings in which the systolic pressure exceeds 140 mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Description : According to the classification of hypertension diagnosed in the older adult, hypertension that can be attributed to an underlying cause is termed a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of ... mm Hg and the diastolic measurement is normal or near normal (less than 90 mm Hg).

Last Answer : a) secondary. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a tumor of the adrenal gland (e.g., pheochromacytoma).

A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

Description : A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand. b) elbow ... a fracture of the distal radius. d) clavicle. A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius.

Last Answer : a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

Description : Which of the following insults or abnormalities most commonly causes ischemic stroke? a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction ... strokes. d) Intracerebral aneurysm rupture Intracerebral aneurysm rupture is associated with hemorrhagic strokes.

Last Answer : a) Cocaine use Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual’s first unprescribed use of the drug.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Description : Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. ... Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia.

Last Answer : a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma. b) Hemarthrosis Hemarthrosis refers to bleeding ... joint with two freely moveable parts. d) Arthroplasty Arthroplasty refers to replacement of a joint.

Last Answer : a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.