Aliskiren acts by (A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II (B) inhibiting the release of rennin (C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor (D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone

Aliskiren acts by
(A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
(B) inhibiting the release of rennin
(C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
(D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone
by

1 Answer

Answer :

(B) inhibiting the release of rennin
by

Related questions

Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by (A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines (B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (C) Stimulating the release of renin (D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin

Description : Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by (A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines (B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (C) Stimulating the release of renin (D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin

Last Answer : Answer : A

Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ? (a) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor (b) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood (c) Decreases rennin concentration in the blood (d) Increases sodium and decreases potassium in the blood (e) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine

Description : Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ? (a) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor (b) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood (c) Decreases ... and decreases potassium in the blood (e) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine

Last Answer : Ans: B

Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II, activates the adrenall cortex to release aldosterone. Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(o+)` and wate

Description : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II, activates the adrenall cortex to release aldosterone. Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(o+)` and wate

Last Answer : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II, activates the adrenall cortex to release aldosterone. Reason `:-` ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Aldosterone release is stimulated by (A) α2-Globulin (B) Renin (C) Angiotensin II (D) Growth hormone

Description : Aldosterone release is stimulated by (A) α2-Globulin (B) Renin (C) Angiotensin II (D) Growth hormone

Last Answer : Answer : C

Actions of angiotensin II include: a. increases the release of aldosterone b. reduces renin release from the kidney c. vasodilatation d. promotes microalbuminuria

Description : Actions of angiotensin II include: a. increases the release of aldosterone b. reduces renin release from the kidney c. vasodilatation d. promotes microalbuminuria

Last Answer : promotes microalbuminuria

Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins

Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Description : Features of µ (Mu) opioid receptor include the following except: A. Acts by inhibiting cAMP formation B. Mediates miotic action C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression D. Mediates high ceiling supraspinal analgesia

Last Answer : C. Mediates low ceiling respiratory depression

In the synthesis of Angiotensin I, rennin acts on Angiotensinogen and cleaves the (A) Leucine – leucine at 10 and 11 position (B) Valine – tyrosine at 3 and 4 position (C) Isoleucine – histidine at 5 and 6 position (D) Proline – histidine at 7 and 8 position

Description : In the synthesis of Angiotensin I, rennin acts on Angiotensinogen and cleaves the (A) Leucine – leucine at 10 and 11 position (B) Valine – tyrosine at 3 and 4 position (C) Isoleucine – histidine at 5 and 6 position (D) Proline – histidine at 7 and 8 position

Last Answer : Answer : A

Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings : (A) LDL-receptor concentration (B) VLDL secretion (C) Mevalonic acid formation (D) Co-enzyme A formation

Description : The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings : (A) LDL-receptor concentration (B) VLDL secretion (C) Mevalonic acid formation (D) Co-enzyme A formation

Last Answer : (C) Mevalonic acid formation

Aldosterone release is stimulated by (a) Angiotensin I (b) Angiotensin (c) Angiotensin III (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Aldosterone release is stimulated by (a) Angiotensin I (b) Angiotensin (c) Angiotensin III (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: D

True statements about aldosterone include: a. secretion is mainly under the control of adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH) hormone secretion b. increases hepatic gluconeogenesis c. its secretion is stimulated by angiotensin d. in the kidney, mainly acts on the proximal convoluted tubules

Description : True statements about aldosterone include: a. secretion is mainly under the control of adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH) hormone secretion b. increases hepatic gluconeogenesis c. its secretion is stimulated by angiotensin d. in the kidney, mainly acts on the proximal convoluted tubules

Last Answer : its secretion is stimulated by angiotensin

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Description : It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be (A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Last Answer : (B) 300 mg

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as (A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism (C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent

Description : Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as (A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism (C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent

Last Answer : (B)alkylating agent after metabolism

In the rennin-angiotensin system the primary hormone is (A) Angiotensinogen (B) Angiotensin I (C) Angiotensin II (D) Angiotensin III

Description : In the rennin-angiotensin system the primary hormone is (A) Angiotensinogen (B) Angiotensin I (C) Angiotensin II (D) Angiotensin III

Last Answer : Answer : C

Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II is a powerful vasconstrictor Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(+)` and water from distal parts of the

Description : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II is a powerful vasconstrictor Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(+)` and water from distal parts of the

Last Answer : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II is a powerful vasconstrictor Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

Aldosterone secretion is controlled by: a. plasma sodium concentration b. plasma calcium concentration c. plasma potassium concentration d. angiotensin II

Description : Aldosterone secretion is controlled by: a. plasma sodium concentration b. plasma calcium concentration c. plasma potassium concentration d. angiotensin II

Last Answer : angiotensin II

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Description : Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Last Answer : ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by (A) hydrogen bond formation (B) covalent bond formation (C) complex formation (D) the action of London forces

Description : Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by (A) hydrogen bond formation (B) covalent bond formation (C) complex formation (D) the action of London forces

Last Answer : (A) hydrogen bond formation

Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials (A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase

Description : Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials (A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase

Last Answer : (B) Phase II

All the following statements about angiotensin are true except (A) Its precursor is an α2-globulin (B) Its active form is an octapeptide (C) It is a vasodilator (D) It increases the secretion of aldosterone

Description : All the following statements about angiotensin are true except (A) Its precursor is an α2-globulin (B) Its active form is an octapeptide (C) It is a vasodilator (D) It increases the secretion of aldosterone

Last Answer : Answer : C

Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.

Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by: A. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings B. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes C. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

Description : Dantrolene sodium reduces skeletal muscle tone by: A. Reducing acetylcholine release from motor nerve endings B. Suppressing spinal polysynaptic reflexes C. Inhibiting the generation of muscle action potential D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

Last Answer : D. Reducing Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum in the muscle fibre

G-proteins: a. are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor b. can be mutated in tumour cells c. mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone d. they are inactivated by cholera toxins

Description : G-proteins: a. are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor b. can be mutated in tumour cells c. mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone d. they are inactivated by cholera toxins

Last Answer : are activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor

Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation? (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed. (b) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release. (c) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of angiotensin II. (d) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.

Description : Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation? (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed. (b) Exposure to cold temperature ... During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.

Last Answer : (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.

Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following? (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Lipolysis (c) Glycogen synthesis (d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor (e) Decreased rennin secretion

Description : Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following? (a) Hypoglycemia (b) Lipolysis (c) Glycogen synthesis (d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor (e) Decreased rennin secretion

Last Answer : Ans: B

In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point? (A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying (C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation

Description : In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point? (A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying (C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation

Last Answer : (A) Lyophilization

Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India? (A) The Director General of Health Services (B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory (C) The Drugs Controller General of India (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory

Description : Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India? (A) The Director General of Health Services (B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory (C) The Drugs Controller General of India (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory

Last Answer : (D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory

The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L

Description : The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be (A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L

Last Answer : (A)10 L

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution? (A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL

Description : How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution? (A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL

Last Answer : (c) 1250 mL

Class 100 area is referred to (A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area (C) Clean room (D) Ware house

Description : Class 100 area is referred to (A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area (C) Clean room (D) Ware house

Last Answer : (B) Aseptic area

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%

Description : A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is : (A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%

Last Answer : (C) 12.5%

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using (A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph (C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs

Description : Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using (A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph (C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs

Last Answer : (D) Fertile eggs

In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former : (A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid (C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate

Description : In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former : (A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid (C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate

Last Answer : (A) Nitrocellulose

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by (A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics (C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics

Description : Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by (A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics (C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics

Last Answer : (C) zero order kinetics

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure : (A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin (C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin

Description : The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure : (A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin (C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin

Last Answer : (B) Hemoglobin

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to (A) increase their biological activity (B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body (C) increase their aqueous solubility (D) all of the above

Description : Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to (A) increase their biological activity (B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body (C) increase their aqueous solubility (D) all of the above

Last Answer : (D) all of the above

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as : (A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20 C (C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C

Description : The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as : (A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20 C (C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C

Last Answer : (D) temperature between 2c C and S: C

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially

Description : Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate (A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially (C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially

Last Answer : (D) mono-exponentially

Coulter counter is used in determination of (A) particle surface area (B) particle size (C) particle volume (D)all of A, B, C

Description : Coulter counter is used in determination of (A) particle surface area (B) particle size (C) particle volume (D)all of A, B, C

Last Answer : (D)all of A, B, C

Oxidative phosphorylation involves (A) Electron transport system (B) Substrate level phosphorylation (C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle (D) None of the above

Description : Oxidative phosphorylation involves (A) Electron transport system (B) Substrate level phosphorylation (C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle (D) None of the above

Last Answer : (A) Electron transport system

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their (A) volatility (B) solubility (C)thermal conductivity (D) polarizability

Description : In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their (A) volatility (B) solubility (C)thermal conductivity (D) polarizability

Last Answer : (D) polarizability

Glass transition temperature is detected through (A) X-Ray diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery (C) Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis

Description : Glass transition temperature is detected through (A) X-Ray diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery (C) Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis

Last Answer : (C) Differential scanning calorimetery

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than (A) 350 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm

Description : In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than (A) 350 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm

Last Answer : (A) 350 nm

Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

Description : Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because (A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea (C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

Last Answer : (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity : (A) Chloro group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2 (C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3

Description : In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity : (A) Chloro group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2 (C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3

Last Answer : (C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7

One of the following statements is NOT true : (A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement (B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement (C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also (D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also

Description : One of the following statements is NOT true : (A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement (B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement (C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also (D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also

Last Answer : (C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also