Description : Aldosterone release is stimulated by (A) α2-Globulin (B) Renin (C) Angiotensin II (D) Growth hormone
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : True statements about aldosterone include: a. secretion is mainly under the control of adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH) hormone secretion b. increases hepatic gluconeogenesis c. its secretion is stimulated by angiotensin d. in the kidney, mainly acts on the proximal convoluted tubules
Last Answer : its secretion is stimulated by angiotensin
Description : Following potassium sparing diuretic inhibits action of aldosterone (a) Amiloride (b) Triamterene (c) Spironolactone (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Bradykinin and angiotensin II have the following feature common to both: A. They both cause fall in BP B. They both are degraded by Kininase II C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins D. They both release aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Last Answer : C. Their precursor proteins are plasma α2 globulins
Description : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II, activates the adrenall cortex to release aldosterone. Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(o+)` and wate
Last Answer : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II, activates the adrenall cortex to release aldosterone. Reason `:-` ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.
Description : Methyl dopa decreases blood pressure by (A) Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines (B) Antagonising the action of aldosterone (C) Stimulating the release of renin (D) Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Actions of angiotensin II include: a. increases the release of aldosterone b. reduces renin release from the kidney c. vasodilatation d. promotes microalbuminuria
Last Answer : promotes microalbuminuria
Description : Aliskiren acts by (A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II (B) inhibiting the release of rennin (C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor (D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone
Last Answer : (B) inhibiting the release of rennin
Description : Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in ... (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle
Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : Milrinone is an example of (a) Phosphodiesterase I inhibitor (b) Phosphodiesterase II inhibitor (c) Phosphodiesterase III inhibitor (d) Phosphodiesterase IV inhibitor
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class III antiarrhythmic agent that is effective in the acute management of atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter of recent onset ? (a) Bretylium (b) Lbutilide (c) Metoprolol (d) Disopyramide
Description : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II is a powerful vasconstrictor Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of `Na^(+)` and water from distal parts of the
Last Answer : Assertion `:-` Angiotensin II is a powerful vasconstrictor Reason `:-` Aldosterone causes reabsorption of ... D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.
Description : All the following statements about angiotensin are true except (A) Its precursor is an α2-globulin (B) Its active form is an octapeptide (C) It is a vasodilator (D) It increases the secretion of aldosterone
Description : Aldosterone secretion is controlled by: a. plasma sodium concentration b. plasma calcium concentration c. plasma potassium concentration d. angiotensin II
Last Answer : angiotensin II
Description : Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway (c) ... epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.
Last Answer : (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Description : Secretion of aldosterone in birds, man, and other mammals is stimulated by
Last Answer : Secretion of aldosterone in birds, man, and other mammals is stimulated by A. Fall in the ... the `Ca^(++)` concentration in blood plasma
Description : The following are true about the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex: a. zona fasciculata secretes cortisol b. zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone c. secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by ACTH d. all
Last Answer : all
Description : The following are true about aldosterone: a. it is secreted by the adrenal medulla b. its secretion is stimulated by decreased blood volume c. it stimulates active reabsorption of sodium in the distal renal tubules. d. it causes increased secretion of potassium by the distal renal tubules.
Last Answer : it causes increased secretion of potassium by the distal renal tubules.
Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by (a) Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP (b) Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP (c) Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP (d) Both (b) and (c)
Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Lidocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because (a) It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action (b) It casues ... efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above
Description : During Phase 2 of action potential in cardiac cell, depolarizing current through calcium channels is balanced by (a) Delayed rectifier potassium current (b) outward chloride channel (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Description : Exertion–induced angina, which is relieved by rest, nitroglycerin, or both, is referred to as (a) Prinzmetal’s angina (b) Unstable angina (c) Classic angina (d) Variant angina (e) Preinfarction angina
Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above
Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above
Description : The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility
Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna
Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril
Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid
Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem
Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride
Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life
Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil
Description : In cardiac cells, adenosine (a) Causes shortening of action potential duration (b) Depolarization (c) Increase in normal automaticity (d) All of the above
Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina ? (a) Digoxin (b) Furosemide (c) Enalapril (d) Amrinone
Description : The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels. (a) L-type voltage sensitive channels (b) T-type voltage sensitive channels (c) N-type voltage sensitive channels (d) Receptor operated calcium channels
Description : A patient suffers from spisodic pain diffusely localized over the chest and upper abdomen, which is relieved by sublingual glyceryl trinitrate. He could be suffering from (a) Angina pectoris (b) Biliary colic (c) Esophageal spasm (d) All of the above
Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion
Description : Glyceryl trinitrate is administratered by all of the following routes except (a) Oral (b) Sublingual (c) Intramuscular (d) Intravenous