The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). c) Narcan. Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

The antidote to heparin is
a) protamine sulfate.
Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse
the effects of heparin.
b) vitamin K.
Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin).
c) Narcan.
Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis.
d) Ipecac.
Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) protamine sulfate.
Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse
the effects of heparin.
by

Related questions

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Description : Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a ... placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Last Answer : a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time

Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene

Description : Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene

Last Answer : C. Ferrous sulfate

Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene

Description : Use of an emetic to remove the ingested poison is contraindicated in following poisonings except that by: A. Strychnine B. Caustic soda C. Ferrous sulfate D. Kerosene

Last Answer : C. Ferrous sulfate

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Description : The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Last Answer : C. Protamine sulfate

Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Description : Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient's activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT ... value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Last Answer : a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Description : Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually ... involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Antithrombin III deficiency accounts for about 2% of venous thrombotic event. This deficiency has been described in patients with pulmonary embolism, mesenteric venous ... is established, fresh frozen plasma should be administered followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious with a generalized tonic clonic seizure and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which of the following could be used to reverse the effects of the lorazepam? A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate

Description : A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious ... A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate 

Last Answer : B. Flumazenil 

Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Description : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

Last Answer : A. Takes about one week to develop

2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Description : 2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Last Answer : A. Ferrous sulfate

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

Description : Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ... is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascular operations

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Coagulation tests include prothrombin time (PT), which measures the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of fibrinogen production and is the most common method for ... more while for peripheral vascular applications, values of 250 seconds or greater are considered appropriate

The prothrombin time a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption c. is increased by warfarin d. is increased by heparin

Description : The prothrombin time a. assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade b. is prolonged in patients with fat absorption c. is increased by warfarin d. is increased by heparin

Last Answer : assess the extrinsic pathway of the blood coagulation cascade

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Description : A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, ... pink to cherry red to cynanotic and pale and is not a reliable diagnostic sign.

Last Answer : a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.

Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

Description : Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting. b) Left lower quadrant pain Pain is generally felt in the ... may be present with appendicitis. d) High fever Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

Last Answer : a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Description : Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour ... as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Last Answer : a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin flushes are used in which of the following situations? a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will maintain the port.

Description : To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin flushes are used in which of the following situations? a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port ... the line is discontinued Heparin flush of ports is not necessary if a line is to be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will maintain the port.

55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Description : 55. The nurse wants to know if the client is aware of the side effects of NSAID. What would be the most appropriate question of the nurse?

Last Answer : B. “Have you ever vomited blood or noticed very black stools?”

The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency with an abnormal prothrombin time (PT) and/or an abnormal activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. For the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Description : The transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is indicated for which of the following reasons? A. Volume replacement. B. As a nutritional supplement. C. Specific coagulation factor deficiency ... the correction of abnormal PT secondary to warfarin therapy, vitamin K deficiency, or liver disease.

Last Answer : Answer: CD DISCUSSION: The use of FFP as a volume expander is not indicated. There are currently several preparations (both crystalloid and colloid) that are equally effective and do not carry the infectious and ... vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and protein S

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours

Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of 2 hours C. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Description : Sustained/controlled release oral dosage form is appropriate for the following type of drug: A. An antiarthritic with a plasma half life of 24 hr B. A sleep inducing hypnotic with a plasma half life of ... 3 hours D. An analgesic with a plasma half life of 6 hours used for relief of casual headache

Last Answer : Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features: A. Takes about one week to develop B. Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate C. It is irreversible D. Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Description : Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) ... the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

The following are true about blood coagulation: a. heparin inhibits blood coagulation through its interference with vitamin K metabolism in the liver b. addition of vitamin K to freshly drawn blood delays clotting c. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin d. platelets are essential for blood clot

Description : The following are true about blood coagulation: a. heparin inhibits blood coagulation through its interference with vitamin K metabolism in the liver b. addition of vitamin K to freshly drawn ... delays clotting c. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin d. platelets are essential for blood clot

Last Answer : thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Description : Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Last Answer : C. Of obstructive jaundice

A 45-year-old surgeon has developed symmetric early morning stiffness in her hands. She wishes to take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug to relieve these symptoms and wants to avoid gastrointestinal side effects. Which one of the following drugs is most appropriate? (a) Aspirin (b) Celecoxib (c) Ibuprofen (d) Indomethacin (e) Piroxicam

Description : A 45-year-old surgeon has developed symmetric early morning stiffness in her hands. She wishes to take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug to relieve these symptoms and wants to avoid gastrointestinal side ... appropriate? (a) Aspirin (b) Celecoxib (c) Ibuprofen (d) Indomethacin (e) Piroxicam

Last Answer : Ans: B

Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination? A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect. B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.

Description : Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination? A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect. B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant ... anticoagulant effect of warfarin. D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.

Last Answer : C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. 

Which thing acts as an antidote to HgCl2 -Do You Know?

Description : Which thing acts as an antidote to HgCl2 -Do You Know?

Last Answer : answer:

Which thing acts as an antidote to HgCl2 poisoning?

Description : Which thing acts as an antidote to HgCl2 poisoning?

Last Answer : White of egg

Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Description : Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot ... is the result of liver disease. d) Non-obstructive Non-obstructive jaundice occurs with hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Are there any stores at all in the state of Maine that still sell syrup of ipecac?

Description : Are there any stores at all in the state of Maine that still sell syrup of ipecac?

Last Answer : Sounds like a dangerous experiment. Thats some potent stuff!

In the more highly developed animals, such as humans this gas is used to regulate the activity of the heart, the blood vessels, and the respiratory system. WORKING MUSCLES PRODUCE A LARGE AMOUNT OF THI SUBSTANCE. Narcosis due to this gas is characterized by mental disturbances which can include confusion, headache, low blood pressure and hypothermia. Name this gas.

Description : In the more highly developed animals, such as humans this gas is used to regulate the activity of the heart, the blood vessels, and the respiratory system. WORKING MUSCLES PRODUCE A ... mental disturbances which can include confusion, headache, low blood pressure and hypothermia. Name this gas.

Last Answer : ANSWER: Carbon Dioxide or CO2 

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Later signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) later include which of the following? a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the medulla.

Description : Later signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) later include which of the following? a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the ... , the pulse pressure (the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressure) widens.

Last Answer : a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the medulla.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.