As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems opposing further thrombus formation. Natural anticoagulants include: a. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) b. Antithrombin III c. Activated protein C d. Heparin cofactor II

As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems opposing further thrombus formation. Natural anticoagulants include: a. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) b. Antithrombin III c. Activated protein C d. Heparin cofactor II
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Answer: b, c, d  Just as thrombin generation is the key to coagulation, antithrombin III is the most central anticoagulant proteins. This glycoprotein binds to thrombin, preventing its removal of fibrinoprotein A and B from fibrinogen, prevents the activation of factor V and VIII and the activation and aggregation of platelets. The second line of defense is the activated protein C, which inactivates factors Va and VIIIa. This inactivation reduces the ability of the prothrombinase complex to accelerate the rate of thrombin formation. A third natural anticoagulant is heparin cofactor II. Its concentration in plasma is estimated to be some four-fold lower than antithrombin III, and its action is primarily implicated in the regulation of thrombin formation in extravascular tissues. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) is a natural catalyst for the activation of plasminogen to plasmin, the main fibrinolytic enzyme in the body. Therefore, TPA is part of the fibrinolytic system rather than a natural anticoagulant
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Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results in selective thrombolysis at the fibrin clot surface. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning agents used in thrombolytic therapy? a. Streptokinase is a bacterial protein which is antigenic in humans, resulting in allergic reactions in up to l5% of cases b. Tissue plasminogen activator acts directly on plasmin without an intermediate drug–plasmin complex c. The half-life of urokinase, streptokinase, and TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Streptokinase is a bacterial protein produced by group C b-hemolytic streptococci. It is therefore antigenic in humans and can be associated with allergic reaction in ... one agent over the other. Streptokinase however, is markedly less expensive than either urokinase or TPA

Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous thrombosis include: a. Enhancement of antithrombin III activity b. A decrease in thrombin availability c. Inhibition of platelet aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time

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There are a number of hypercoaguable states which can be associated with arterial or venous thrombosis and embolic phenomenon. These include: a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Von Willebrand disease d. Vitamin C deficiency

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Tests of coagulation are used to monitor anticoagulation treatment and detect intrinsic abnormalities in coagulation. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning coagulation tests? a. Prothrombin time (PT) measures both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways and fibrinogen b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can be used to monitor both oral anticoagulation with Warfarin and intravenous anticoagulation with heparin c. Thrombin clotting time (TCT) is a measurement of the time it takes for exogenously administered thrombin to turn plasma fibrinogen into fibrin clot d. Whole blood activated clotting time (ACT) is a measurement of the ability of whole blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin levels intraoperatively during cardiovascular and peripheral vascu

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Antithrombin III deficiency is a commonly observed hypercoaguable state. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this condition? a. A patient with this deficiency usually presents with thrombosis while on heparin or exhibits an inability to become adequately anticoagulated with heparin b. This deficiency may be either congenital or acquired c. Thrombotic episodes are related to predisposing events such as operations, childbirth, and infections d. Treatment involves acutely the administration of fresh frozen plasma followed by long-term treatment with Coumadin

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he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

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Description : Use of tissue plasminogen activator? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

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Interleukin-6 is recognized as the cytokine primarily responsible for the alteration in hepatic protein synthesis recognized as the acute phase response. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning acute phase protein response to surgical stress? a. Glucocorticoid hormones inhibit this response b. Proteins such as albumin and transferrin which serve in serum transport are generally increased in this response c. Examples of acute phase proteins include fibrinogen and C-reactive protein d. In general, the physiologic role of acute phase proteins are to reduce the systemic effects of tissue damage

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Use of anticoagulants in acute myocardial infarction affords the following benefit(s): A. Reduces short-term mortality B. Prevents thrombus extension and subsequent attack C. Prevents venous thromboembolism D. All of the above

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or inflammatory stimuli b. The liver and gut appear to be a major source of TNF following hypoperfusion c. Circulating levels of TNF correlate well with severity of tissue injury in shock d. Recently completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages may become activated and secrete cytokines c. Macrophages serve as phagocytic cells in the tissues but not within the bloodstream d. Polymorphonucleocytes (PMNS) are normally present in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

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Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above

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Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated leukocytes b. Complement products referred to as anaphylatoxins include C1, C3a, C4a, and C5a c. The principal role of C5a is in bacterial opsonization d. The alternative and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

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The evaluation of a patient scheduled for elective surgery should always include the following as tests of hemostasis and coagulation: A. History and physical examination. B. Complete blood count (CBC), including platelet count. C. Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT). D. Studies of platelet aggregation with adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and epinephrine.

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Which of the following statements are true of oxidants? A. In addition to their pathophysiologic roles in inflammation, injury, and infection, oxidants also have physiologic roles. B. Oxidants may be generated from activated neutrophils and during reperfusion following a period of ischemia. C. The deleterious effects of oxidants include lipid peroxidation and cell membrane damage, oxidative damage to DNA, and inhibition of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthesis. D. The mechanism of ischemia-reperfusion injury involved the catalytic production of superoxide anion (O 2•) by the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

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Which of the following is/are not a substrate or cofactor for prolyl hydroxylase? A. Alpha-ketoglutarate. B. Ascorbate. C. Biotin. D. Oxygen. E. Copper.

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The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants except: A. They interfere with an early step in the synthesis of clotting factors B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their anticoagulant effect has a latency of onset of 1-3 days C. Their dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time D. They are contraindicated during pregnancy

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Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin ?

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Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin? (a) Eosinophils (b) Monocytes (c) Neutrophils (d) Basophils

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Last Answer : d) Basophils

Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator? (A) Tranexamic acid (B) Streptokinase (C) Aminocaproic acid (D) None of the above

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Last Answer : (B) Streptokinase

The use of prophylactic antibiotics has become commonplace. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the prophylactic use of antibiotics? a. The appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics must include the initiation of the agent prior to the surgical procedure b. Continuing the antibiotic into the postoperative period has led to improved results in antibiotic prophylaxis c. The prophylactic administration of broad-spectrum agents (third-generation cephalosporins) has been shown to be particularly advantageous d. The topical use of antimicrobial agents is of no advantage in the prophylactic setting

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Last Answer : Answer: a Intravenous administration of an antibiotic is clearly indicated for patients undergoing clean contaminated operations. These antibiotics should be administered prior to surgery ... of antimicrobial agents is equivalent to the administration of intravenous antimicrobial agent antibiotics

During hemdialysis process I. blood drained from a conveniend artery and anticoagulant is added (heparin). II. Removal of nitrogenous waste from blood

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of developing deep venous thrombosis with low-dose heparin prophylaxis decreases by 67% b. The risk of pulmonary embolism is decreased by almost 50% c. There is no increase in mortality from other causes found in patients treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the results of a National Institute of Health Consensus Conference on venous thrombosis and low-dose heparin prophylaxis? a. The odds of ... treated with low-dose heparin d. There was no difference in the incidence of bleeding complications

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c In a metaanalysis of 70 randomized trials in 16,000 patients comparing low-dose heparin prophylaxis with standard therapy, the odds of developing deep venous thrombosis ... Similarly, the effectiveness of prophylaxis was not influenced by either two or three times daily dosage

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a detrimental response to injury with normal body processes working to avoid this process c. Vascular permeability is maintained to prevent further cellular injury d. Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a ... Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: a After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once ... and mast cells and enhance the egress of cells and substrate into the wound and tissue

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning energy converting transport? a. The site of energy conversion and transport in the plasma membrane involves the phospholipid component b. The Na+-K++-ATPase derives energy from hydrolysis of extracellular ATP c. In some systems, energy inherent in the transmembrane ion gradient can be used to drive transport of a second species d. Examples of species transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Description : There are two properties of the cell necessary to maintain nonequilibrium cellular composition; the first is selectivity and the second is energy conversion. Which of the following statement(s ... transported via secondary active transport include hydrogen ions, calcium, amino acids and glucose

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The selectivity of the plasma membrane, although impressive, cannot account for the nonequilibrium composition of living cells. A cell can be maintained in a nonequilibrium state only by ... to drive the transport of a second species such as protons, calcium, amino acids, or glucose

What are anticoagulants? What are the practical applications of anticoagulants, like heparin, in Medicine?

Description : What are anticoagulants? What are the practical applications of anticoagulants, like heparin, in Medicine?

Last Answer : Anticoagulants are substances that block the clotting reactions and thus stop the coagulation process. Ordinarily there are anticoagulants circulating in the plasma since under normal conditions the ... the formation of thrombus inside blood vessels of patients facing increased thrombotic risk.

Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. Bacteria, protein exudate, and necrotic tissue all will compromise this process b. Epithelial cells exhibit contact proliferation c. Epithelialization occurs only from the margins of the wound d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Description : Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. ... d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The initial step of epithelialization involves epithelial cells from the basal layer of the wound edge flattening and migrating across the wound, completing wound coverage within 24- ... abrasions and burns may scar significantly. Whenever the dermis is incised, a scar will form

Intracellular organelles involved with protein synthesis include: a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi complex d. Lysosomes

Description : Intracellular organelles involved with protein synthesis include: a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi complex d. Lysosomes

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Mitochondria are the major source of energy production in eukaryotic cells. The endoplasmic reticulum is the network of interconnected membranes forming closed vesicles, ... containing acid hydrolytic enzymes that degrade polymers such as proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids

Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Description : Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Collagen synthesis, an integral part of wound healing, is affected by many local and systemic factors. Protein depletion impairs fibroplasia. Hypoproteinemia leads to diminution of ... more than any other factor, wound infection is associated with the risk of wound failure

It has been suggested that enterocyte-specific fuels be utilized for all patients receiving parenteral nutrition. Theoretically, the benefits of such fuels include: A. Glutamine increases gut mucosal protein content and wall thickness. B. Butyrate increases jejunal mucosal protein content and wall thickness. C. The short-chain fatty acids—butyrate, propionate, and acetate—are useful in supporting ileal mucosal protein content and thickness. D. The use of glutamine-enriched solutions for parenteral nutrition for patients with chemotherapy toxicity or radiation enteritis is without hazards.

Description : It has been suggested that enterocyte-specific fuels be utilized for all patients receiving parenteral nutrition. Theoretically, the benefits of such fuels include: A. Glutamine increases ... parenteral nutrition for patients with chemotherapy toxicity or radiation enteritis is without hazards.

Last Answer : Answer: NONE IS ENTIRELY TRUE DISCUSSION: The use of enterocyte-specific fuels is part of a new and potentially exciting phase of nutritional pharmacology in parenteral nutrition; ... the maintenance of colonocyte-specific nutrition and, in the case of butyrate, ileal enterocyte nutrition

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning translation of the mRNA message to protein synthesis? a. An adaptor molecule, tRNA, recognizes specific nucleic acid bases and unites them with specific amino acids b. Covalent attachment of tRNA to amino acids is energy dependent c. The formation of a peptide bond between the growing peptide chain and the free amino acid occurs in the free cytoplasm d. Complete protein synthesis takes hours

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning translation of the mRNA message to protein synthesis? a. An adaptor molecule, tRNA, recognizes specific nucleic acid bases and unites them ... and the free amino acid occurs in the free cytoplasm d. Complete protein synthesis takes hours

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The synthesis of protein involves conversion from a four-letter nucleotide language to one of 20 chemically distinct amino acids. This process is referred to as ... translation and be moving down the mRNA molecules simultaneously, thus increasing the rate of protein synthesis