The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

The following can be used to antagonise the action of
heparin in case of overdose:
A. Heparan sulfate
B. Dextran sulfate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Ancrod
by

2 Answers

Answer :

C. Protamine sulfate
D. Ancrod (p. 564)
42.15 Blood level of which clotting factor declines most
rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy:
A. Factor VII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. Prothrombin (p. 564)
42.16 The following statements are true of oral anticoagulants
except:
A. They interfere with an early step in the
synthesis of clotting factors
B. Irrespective of the dose administered, their
anticoagulant effect has a latency of onset of
1-3 days
C. Their dose is adjusted by repeated measurement of prothrombin time
D. They are contraindicated during pregnanc
by

Answer :

C. Protamine sulfate
by

Related questions

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). c) Narcan. Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Description : The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to ... and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Last Answer : a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin.

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Description : Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a ... placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Last Answer : a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other’s side effects B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other's side effects B. Nitrates primarily ... primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Last Answer : B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load

The following statement is true about endogenous opioid peptides: A. They activate only μ opioid recepors B. They do not occur in peripheral tissues C. They mediate stress induced analgesia D. Naloxone fails to antagonise their actio

Description : The following statement is true about endogenous opioid peptides: A. They activate only μ opioid recepors B. They do not occur in peripheral tissues C. They mediate stress induced analgesia D. Naloxone fails to antagonise their actio

Last Answer : C. They mediate stress induced analgesia

Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Last Answer : D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Insulin resistance can be minimised by the use of: A. Corticosteroids B. Tolbutamide C. Protamine D. Monocomponent/human insulin

Description : Insulin resistance can be minimised by the use of: A. Corticosteroids B. Tolbutamide C. Protamine D. Monocomponent/human insulin

Last Answer : D. Monocomponent/human insulin

Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis

Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction

Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis

As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Description : As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except: A. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins B. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours C. It is nonpyrogenic D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Last Answer : D. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood

Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Description : Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that: A. It cannot be injected i.v. B. It is not excreted in urine C. It is not bound to transferrin in plasma D. It produces fewer side effects

Last Answer : A. It cannot be injected i.v

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Description : Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor to interact with antithrombin III C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B

Description : The following action(s) of heparin is/are essential for inhibition of factor Xa: A. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor XIIa B. Provision of scaffold for the clotting factor ... configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites D. Both A' and B

Last Answer : C. Induction of a configurational change in antithrombin III to expose its interacting sites

A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to: A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis B. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

Description : A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to: A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis B. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

Last Answer : D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate

The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Description : The major constraint in the long term use of benzodiazepines for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is: A. Development of tolerance to antianxiety action of the benzodiazepines B. Possibility of drug dependence C. Cardiovascular depression D. Likelyhood of overdose toxicit

Last Answer : B. Possibility of drug dependence

Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Description : Zolpidem differs from diazepam in that: A. It is safer in overdose than diazepam B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use C. It causes more marked suppression of REM sleep D. It has more potent muscle relaxant action

Last Answer : B. Its hypnotic action shows little fading on repeated nightly use

Which of the following purgatives undergoes enterohepatic circulation to produce prolonged action: A. Docusates B. Phenolphthalein C. Castor oil D. Mag. sulfate

Description : Which of the following purgatives undergoes enterohepatic circulation to produce prolonged action: A. Docusates B. Phenolphthalein C. Castor oil D. Mag. sulfate

Last Answer : B. Phenolphthalein

2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Description : 2 In a conscious patient of poisoning, use of an emetic is permissible in case the ingested poison is: A. Ferrous sulfate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Kerosine D. Morphine

Last Answer : A. Ferrous sulfate

Hydroxyethyl starch is a: A. Plasma expander B. Haemostatic C. Heparin substitute D. Bile acid sequestrant

Description : Hydroxyethyl starch is a: A. Plasma expander B. Haemostatic C. Heparin substitute D. Bile acid sequestrant

Last Answer : A. Plasma expander

Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Description : Choose the drug which alters surface receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit aggregation, release reaction and to improve platelet survival in extracorporeal circulation: A. Dipyridamole B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin D. Heparin

Last Answer : B. Ticlopidine

The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Description : The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is: A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin D. Digoxin

Last Answer : B. Warfarin

Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Description : Heparin is contraindicated in patients suffering from the following diseases except: A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome C. Subacute bacterial endoc

Last Answer : B. Bleeding due to defibrination syndrome

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Description : Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis B. Less frequent dosing C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required

Last Answer : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis

The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Description : The following is true of heparin except: A. Sudden stoppage of continuous heparin therapy causes rebound increase in blood coagulability B. High doses of heparin inhibit platelet aggregation ... active circulating anticoagulant D. Heparin clears lipemic plasma in vivo but not in vitro

Last Answer : C. Heparin is the physiologically active circulating anticoagulant

Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : Low doses of heparin prolong: A. Bleeding time B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prothrombin time D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : B. Activated partial thromboplastin time

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Description : Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): A. Intrinsic pathway B. Extrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : A. Intrinsic pathway

he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Description : he primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and ... of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

Last Answer : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombi

Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Description : Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Last Answer : C. Of obstructive jaundice

The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Description : The following is true of pethidine except: A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morphine B. It is less constipating than morphine C. It is a poor antitussive D. In overdose it often produces excitatory effect

Last Answer : A. At equianalgesic doses it causes less respiratory depression than morph

The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The following is a tetracyclic antidepressant that has additional dopamine blocking and neuroleptic properties, as well as greater propensity to cause seizures in overdose: A. Amoxapine B. Doxepin C. Dothiepin D. Trazodone

Description : The following is a tetracyclic antidepressant that has additional dopamine blocking and neuroleptic properties, as well as greater propensity to cause seizures in overdose: A. Amoxapine B. Doxepin C. Dothiepin D. Trazodone

Last Answer : A. Amoxapine

The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Description : The mechanisms involved in the causation of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to overdose of tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Intraventricular conduction block B. Potentiation of noradrenaline C. Antagonism of acetylcholine D. Increased vagal tone

Last Answer : D. Increased vagal tone

Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin therapy prevents granulomatous lesions and cardiac complications of acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Description : Choose the correct statement about aspirin: A. In an afebrile patient acute overdose of aspirin produces hypothermia B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid C. Aspirin ... acute rheumatic fever D. Long term aspirin therapy increases the risk of developing colon cancer

Last Answer : B. Aspirin suppresses flushing attending large dose of nicotinic acid

Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Description : Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is: A. Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes B. Destroyed by gastric acid C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values D. Insoluble in water

Last Answer : C. Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values

Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula

Description : Select the purgative that should not be taken at bed time: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Bisacodyl C. Senna D. Ispaghula

Last Answer : A. Magnesium sulfate

The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Lactulose D. Magnesium sulfate

Description : The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy: A. Bisacodyl B. Liquid paraffin C. Lactulose D. Magnesium sulfate

Last Answer : C. Lactulose

he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%

Description : he percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulfate is: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 33%

Last Answer : C. 20%

Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine

Description : Which of the following tocolytics used for suppressing labour is most likely to compromise placental perfusion: A. Salbutamol B. Ethyl alcohol C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : D. Nifedipine

Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine

Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate

A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Description : A drug which produces qualitatively different actions when administered through different routes is: A. Phenytoin sodium B. Hydralazine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Nitroglycerine

Last Answer : C. Magnesium sulfate

The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide

Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide

Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate

In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows the presence of (A) Keratan sulphate I (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate (D) Keratan sulphate II

Description : In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows the presence of (A) Keratan sulphate I (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan sulphate (D) Keratan sulphate II

Last Answer : Answer : C

The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is (A) Dermatan sulphate (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Keratan sulphate (D) Heparan sulphate

Description : The glycosaminoglycan which does not contain uronic acid is (A) Dermatan sulphate (B) Chondroitin sulphate (C) Keratan sulphate (D) Heparan sulphate

Last Answer : C

The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Description : The antiparkinsonian action of central anticholinergics has the following features except: A. They control tremor more than rigidity B. They produce a low ceiling therapeutic effect C. They are effective in neuroleptic drug induced parkinsonism D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced case

Last Answer : D. They are the preferred drugs in advanced cases

Tolerance to the antiparkinsonian action develops most rapidly in the case of: A. Levodopa B. Levodopa + carbidopa C. Amantadine D. Bromocriptine

Description : Tolerance to the antiparkinsonian action develops most rapidly in the case of: A. Levodopa B. Levodopa + carbidopa C. Amantadine D. Bromocriptine

Last Answer : C. Amantadine

A cereal protein soluble in 70% alcohol but insoluble in water or salt solution is (A) Glutelin (B) Protamine (C) Albumin (D) Gliadin

Description : A cereal protein soluble in 70% alcohol but insoluble in water or salt solution is (A) Glutelin (B) Protamine (C) Albumin (D) Gliadin

Last Answer : Answer : D

Histones are (A) Identical to protamine (B) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine (C) Proteins with high molecular weight (D) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids

Description : Histones are (A) Identical to protamine (B) Proteins rich in lysine and arginine (C) Proteins with high molecular weight (D) Insoluble in water and very dilute acids

Last Answer : Answer : B