To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin flushes are used in which of the following situations? a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will maintain the port.

To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin
flushes are used in which of the following situations?
a) Daily when not in use
Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will
maintain the port.
b) With continuous infusions
Continuous infusion maintains the patency of each port. Heparin
flushes are used after each intermittent infusion.
c) Before blood drawing
Heparin flushes are used after blood drawing in order to prevent
clotting of blood within the port.
d) When the line is discontinued
Heparin flush of ports is not necessary if a line is to be discontinued.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Daily when not in use
Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will
maintain the port.
by

Related questions

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

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Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

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Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

Which of the following positions are employed to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion that will increase ICP.

Description : Which of the following positions are employed to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous ... an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.

Last Answer : a) Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion that will increase ICP.

The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). c) Narcan. Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

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Last Answer : a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin.

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

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Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

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The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

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A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

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Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

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External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

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Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

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What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

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40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

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Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

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The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

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When the nurse observes that the patient always has difficulty breathing when lying flat, the nurse records that the patient is demonstrating a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea prefer not to lie flat and will need to maintain their beds in a semi- to high Fowler’s position

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A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

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Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

What do nurses need on a daily basis?

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Last Answer : a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

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Eustachian tube patency?

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Prostaglandins play pathophysiological role in the following except: A. Patency of ductus arteriosus B. Regulation of renal tubular salt absorption C. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction D. Initiation of labour

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Which of the following statement(s) concerning laboratory studies used in monitoring a patient with intravenous heparinization is/are correct? a. The platelet count should be followed because of the risk of heparin-associated thrombocytopenia b. The prothrombin time should be observed if prolonged treatment is necessary c. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be maintained at approximately 1.5 times normal d. The serum creatinine should be measured daily to allow adjustments in dose based on renal function

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Nurse Mercy is setting up for an emergency caesarian section. The linen packs were damp although these were just taken from the sterilizer. The nurse’s appropriate action is A. Bring the linen packs back to the Central Supply section for quality control B. Change the damp linen pack C. Open the linen pack and allow to dry D. Do not use the damp linen

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Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

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Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community. b) Rehabilitation and restorative services Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.

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What is a port ? What advantage does the Mumbai port have over the other ports of India in international trade? -Geography

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Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the east coast ? -SST 10th

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Which one of the following statements is correct? [NDA 2003] (a) India ranks 9th in the world's shipping tonnage (b) Mumbai port handles half of the country's foreign trade (c) Kandla and Kolkata are tidal ports (d) India has 14 major ports and 129 minor ports

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Last Answer : Ans: (b)

Kolkata port is an example of which type of ports

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Last Answer : Riverine

Which of the ports is not a natural port

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Last Answer : Chennai

Which of the following devices is specially designed to forward packets to specific ports based on the packet's address? 1) Specialty hub 2) Switching hub 3) Port hub 4) Filtering hub

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Which of the following devices is specially designed to forward packets to specific ports based on the packet's address? 1 Specialty hub 2 Switching hub 3 Port hub 4 Filtering hub

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8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs a) 4, i, iv b) 6, ii, iii c) 4, i,ii,iii d) 6, i, ii, iv

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Last Answer : c) 4, i,ii,iii

8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs a) 4, i, iv b) 6, ii, iii c) 4, i,ii,iii d) 6, i, ii, iv

Description : 8096 has ___ general purpose I/O ports, Port 2 includes ______ of the following i) two quasi-bidirectional I/O lines ii) two output lines iii) four input lines iv) open drain outputs a) 4, i, iv b) 6, ii, iii c) 4, i,ii,iii d) 6, i, ii, iv

Last Answer : c) 4, i,ii,iii

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable. (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Description : A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/ ... (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous bolus injection (d) Slow intravenous infusion

Last Answer : Ans: D

A patient of acute myocardial infarction being treated in intensive care unit developed left ventricular failure with raised central venous pressure. It was decided to use glyceryl trinitrate. Which route/method of administration would be most suitable: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous bolus injection D. Slow intravenous infusion

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Last Answer : D. Slow intravenous infusion

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery