Celiac sprue is an example of which category of malabsorption? a) Mucosal disorders causing generalized malabsorption In addition to celiac sprue, regional enteritis and radiation enteritis are examples of mucosal disorders.

Celiac sprue is an example of which category of malabsorption?
a) Mucosal disorders causing generalized malabsorption
In addition to celiac sprue, regional enteritis and radiation enteritis are
examples of mucosal disorders.
b) Infectious diseases causing generalized malabsorption
Examples of infectious diseases causing generalized malabsorption
include small bowel bacterial overgrowth, tropical sprue, and Whipple’s
disease.
c) Luminal problems causing malabsorption
Examples of luminal problems causing malabsorption include bile acid
deficiency, Zollinger Ellison syndrome, and pancreatic insufficiency.
d) Postoperative malabsorption
Postoperative gastric or intestinal resection can result in development
of malabsorption syndromes.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Mucosal disorders causing generalized malabsorption
In addition to celiac sprue, regional enteritis and radiation enteritis are
examples of mucosal disorders.
by

Related questions

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests a) Inflammatory colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory colitis or enteritis. b) Small bowel disease Watery stools are characteristic of small bowel disease. c) Disorders of the colon Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. d) Intestinal malabsorption Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

Description : The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests a) Inflammatory colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory colitis or enteritis. b) Small bowel ... with disorders of the colon. d) Intestinal malabsorption Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

Last Answer : a) Inflammatory colitis The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory colitis or enteritis.

Crohn’s disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Description : Crohn's disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn's disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur ... to lactose intolerance. d) gastric resection. Postoperative malabsorption occurs after gastric or intestinal resection.

Last Answer : a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Regional enteritis is characterized by: a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn’s disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating granulomas.

Description : Regional enteritis is characterized by: a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn's disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating ... prolonged and variable course while ulcerative colitis is characterized by exacerbations and remissions.

Last Answer : a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn’s disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating granulomas.

It has been suggested that enterocyte-specific fuels be utilized for all patients receiving parenteral nutrition. Theoretically, the benefits of such fuels include: A. Glutamine increases gut mucosal protein content and wall thickness. B. Butyrate increases jejunal mucosal protein content and wall thickness. C. The short-chain fatty acids—butyrate, propionate, and acetate—are useful in supporting ileal mucosal protein content and thickness. D. The use of glutamine-enriched solutions for parenteral nutrition for patients with chemotherapy toxicity or radiation enteritis is without hazards.

Description : It has been suggested that enterocyte-specific fuels be utilized for all patients receiving parenteral nutrition. Theoretically, the benefits of such fuels include: A. Glutamine increases ... parenteral nutrition for patients with chemotherapy toxicity or radiation enteritis is without hazards.

Last Answer : Answer: NONE IS ENTIRELY TRUE DISCUSSION: The use of enterocyte-specific fuels is part of a new and potentially exciting phase of nutritional pharmacology in parenteral nutrition; ... the maintenance of colonocyte-specific nutrition and, in the case of butyrate, ileal enterocyte nutrition

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Description : Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and ... very typical for patients to have endured their symptoms for a long period of time.

Last Answer : a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

100. The client complained of generalized pruritus. The following are appropriate nursing interventions except

Description : 100. The client complained of generalized pruritus. The following are appropriate nursing interventions except

Last Answer : B. Regulate the temperature to 25 degrees centigrade or lower

Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the left shoulder C. Tenderness and rigidity at the left epigastric area radiating to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Description : Nurse Fely did her admission. She understands that the pain is characterized as A. Tenderness that is generalized in the upper epigastric area B. Pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the ... to the back D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

Last Answer : D. Tenderness and rigidity at the upper right abdomen radiating to the midsternal area

What are generalized anxiety disorders?

Description : What are generalized anxiety disorders?

Last Answer : A generalized anxiety disorder is a disorder in which the person suffering from it does not have one specific thing that causes them anxiety, it is generalized among many different triggers.

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders. b) ... four extremities. d) Paraplegia Paraplegia refers to paralysis of both legs and the lower trunk.

Last Answer : a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders.

Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

Description : Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, ... causes the described problem and is usually diagnosed in the second or third decade of life.

Last Answer : a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Description : Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the ... In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.

Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Description : Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE ... of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

Last Answer : a) a hereditary predisposition. Atopic allergic disorders are characterized by a hereditary predisposition and production of a local reaction to IgE antibodies produced in response to common environmental allergens.

The nurse’s base knowledge of primary immunodeficiencies includes which of the following statements? Primary immunodeficiencies a) develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases. These disorders may involve one or more components of the immune system.

Description : The nurse's base knowledge of primary immunodeficiencies includes which of the following statements? Primary immunodeficiencies a) develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases ... . Without treatment, infants and children with these disorders seldom survive to adulthood.

Last Answer : a) develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases. These disorders may involve one or more components of the immune system.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Description : A history of infection specifically caused by group A betahemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders? a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is ... chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

Last Answer : a) Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Description : Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most ... syndrome is the result of abnormal secretion of adrenocortical hormones, especially androgen.

Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Description : More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates which stage of HIV infection? a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic. b) ... CDC category C - AIDS Less than 200 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category C - AIDS.

Last Answer : a) CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic More than 500 CD4+ T lymphocytes/mm3 indicates CDC category A - HIV asymptomatic.

Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. b) Sucralfate (Carafate) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. c) Famotidine (Pepcid) Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Description : Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine ... antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

Last Answer : a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization ... to a particular pathogen. d) Infection Infection refers to host interaction with an organism.

Last Answer : a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Description : The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie's disease. ... refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Which of the following terms describes the passage of a hollow instrument into a cavity for the withdrawal of fluid? a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the fluid accumulation is causing cardiorespiratory compromise.

Description : Which of the following terms describes the passage of a hollow instrument into a cavity for the withdrawal of fluid? a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the ... . d) Dialysis Dialysis refers to a form of filtration to separate crystalloid from colloid substances.

Last Answer : a) Paracentesis Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the fluid accumulation is causing cardiorespiratory compromise.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Description : Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, ... the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.

Last Answer : a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Description : Bacteriostatic drugs are unlikely to effect cure of bacterial infection in the following category of patients except: A. Diabetic patients B. Patients with allergic disorders C. Patients on corticosteroid therapy D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis patient

Last Answer : B. Patients with allergic disorders

Tropical sprue?

Description : Tropical sprue?

Last Answer : DefinitionTropical sprue is a condition seen in residents of, or visitors to tropical areas. It impairs the absorption of nutrients from the intestines, causing malabsorption.See also: Celiac ... level (serum)Iron level (serum)Stool examination for bacteria and parasitesUpper endoscopyUpper GI s

The passage between the nozzle and the __________ is called 'sprue' in case of injection moulding. (A) Runner (B) Cylinder (C) Mold (D) None of these

Description : The passage between the nozzle and the __________ is called 'sprue' in case of injection moulding. (A) Runner (B) Cylinder (C) Mold (D) None of these

Last Answer : (A) Runner

The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to:** A. Overheating of the alloy B. Molten gases C. Diameter of the sprue D. Overheating of investment

Description : The contraction (Gaseous) porosity in inlays is related to:** A. Overheating of the alloy B. Molten gases C. Diameter of the sprue D. Overheating of investment

Last Answer : B. Molten gases

Elaborate why the section of a sprue reduces downwards.

Description : Elaborate why the section of a sprue reduces downwards.

Last Answer : A sprue section reduces downwards to a smaller size at its bottom will create a choke which will help keep the sprue full of molten metal. 

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

Malabsorption?

Description : Malabsorption?

Last Answer : DefinitionMalabsorption is difficulty digesting or absorbing nutrients from food.Causes, incidence, and risk factorsMany diseases can cause malabsorption. Malabsorption is usually the inability ... obesity, partial or complete removal of the ileum)CholestasisChronic liver diseaseChronic pancreatiti

Serum inorganic phosphorous decreases in all the following conditions except (A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Intestinal malabsorption (C) Osteomalacia (D) Chronic renal failure

Description : Serum inorganic phosphorous decreases in all the following conditions except (A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Intestinal malabsorption (C) Osteomalacia (D) Chronic renal failure

Last Answer : Answer : D

Hypocalcaemia can occur in all the following except (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Intestinal malabsorption

Description : Hypocalcaemia can occur in all the following except (A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia (C) Hyperparathyroidism (D) Intestinal malabsorption

Last Answer : Answer : C

Hypercholesterolemia is found in (A) Xanthomatosis (B) Thyrotoxicosis (C) Hemolytic jaundice (D) Malabsorption syndrom

Description : Hypercholesterolemia is found in (A) Xanthomatosis (B) Thyrotoxicosis (C) Hemolytic jaundice (D) Malabsorption syndrom

Last Answer : Answer : A

Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of (A) Decreased intake of vitamin B12 (B) Atrophy of gastric mucosa (C) Intestinal malabsorption (D) All of these

Description : Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of (A) Decreased intake of vitamin B12 (B) Atrophy of gastric mucosa (C) Intestinal malabsorption (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Positive nitrogen balance is seen in (A) Starvation (B) Wasting diseases (C) Growing age (D) Intestinal malabsorption

Description : Positive nitrogen balance is seen in (A) Starvation (B) Wasting diseases (C) Growing age (D) Intestinal malabsorption

Last Answer : Answer : C

Serum LDL has been found to be increased in (A) Obstructive jaundice (B) Hepatic jaundice (C) Hemolytic jaundice (D) Malabsorption syndrome

Description : Serum LDL has been found to be increased in (A) Obstructive jaundice (B) Hepatic jaundice (C) Hemolytic jaundice (D) Malabsorption syndrome

Last Answer : Answer : A

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.