No surgical operation should be performed during
the following stage of anaesthesia:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III, plane 1
D. Stage III, plane 3

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Stage II

Related questions

Description : If a patient being anaesthetised with ether is unconscious, has regular respiration, blood pressure and heart rate are normal, corneal reflex is present and eyeballs are roving, the patient is in: A. Stage II B. Stage III plane 1 C. Stage III plane 2 D. Stage III plane 3

Last Answer : B. Stage III plane 1

Description : Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis for clean elective surgery started just before operation should be continued for: A. One day B. Three days C. Five days D. Seven days

Last Answer : A. One day

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Description : Use of glycopyrrolate in preanaesthetic medication serves the following purposes except: A. Prevents respiratory secretions during anaesthesia B. Guards against reflex vagal bradycardia during ... Produces amnesia for perioperative events D. Reduces the probability of occurrence of laryngospasm

Last Answer : C. Produces amnesia for perioperative events

Description : Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers differ from competitive blockers in the following attributes except: A. They induce contraction of isolated frog rectus abdominis muscle B. Ether anaesthesia ... produces well sustained contraction D. Neostigmine does not reverse block produced by them

Last Answer : B. Ether anaesthesia intensifies block produced by them

Description : Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep: A. Stage II B. Stage III C. Stage IV D. REM stage

Last Answer : A. Stage II

Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine

Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide

Description : nduction of anaesthesia with propofol is often attended by: A. Transient apnoea B. Sharp short lasting fall in blood pressure C. Pain in the injected vein D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium

Description : The following is true of sevoflurane except: A. It induces anaesthesia rapidly B. It is nonpungent C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment D. It is less potent than halothane

Last Answer : C. It produces prolonged postanaesthetic psychomotor impairment

Description : s a general anaesthetic, halothane has the following advantages except: A. Very good analgesic action B. Noninflammable and nonexplosive C. Reasonably rapid induction of anaesthesia D. Pleasant and nonirritating

Last Answer : A. Very good analgesic action

Description : Ether is still used as a general anaesthetic in India, specially in peripheral hospitals because: A. It is nonexplosive B. It is pleasant smelling and nonirritating C. It induces anaesthesia rapidly D. It is cheap and can be administered without anaesthetic machine

Last Answer : A. It is nonexplosive

Description : Which of the following is a sign of deep anaesthesia: A. Appearance of tears in eyes B. Resistance to passive inflation of lungs C. Fall in blood pressure D. Patient makes swallowing movements

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure

Description : Intravenous regional anaesthesia is suitable for: A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb B. Vascular surgery on the lower limb C. Head and neck surgery D. Caesarian section

Last Answer : A. Orthopedic manipulations on the upper limb

Description : Epidural anaesthesia differs from spinal anaesthesia in that: A. Epidural anaesthesia produces less cardiovascular complications B. Headache is more common after epidural anaesthesia C. Blood ... . Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthes

Last Answer : D. Greater separation between sensory and motor blockade can be obtained with epidural anaesthesia

Description : Spinal anaesthesia is not suitable for: A. Vaginal delivery B. Lower segment caesarian section C. Prostatectomy D. Operations on mentally ill patients

Last Answer : D. Operations on mentally ill patient

Description : The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

Last Answer : A. Histamine release

Description : The duration of spinal anaesthesia depends on each of the following except: A. Which local anaesthetic is used B. Concentration of the local anaesthetic used C. Posture of the patient D. Whether adrenaline has been added to the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : C. Posture of the patient

Description : In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of: A. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensory block B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block C. Motor block is higher than the sensory block D. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block has the same level

Last Answer : B. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block

Description : The segmental level of spinal anaesthesia depends on: A. Volume of the local anaesthetic injected B. Specific gravity of the local anaesthetic solution C. Posture of the patient D. All of the above factors

Last Answer : D. All of the above factors

Description : n which of the following techniques the concentration of the local anaesthetic used is the lowest: A. Infiltration anaesthesia B. Nerve block anaesthesia C. Spinal anaesthesia D. Epidural anaesthesia

Last Answer : A. Infiltration anaesthesia

Description : Surface anaesthesia is used for the following except: A. Ocular tonometry B. Urethral dilatation C. Tooth extraction D. Anal fissure

Last Answer : C. Tooth extraction

Description : Choose the local anaesthetic that is specifically used to produce corneal anaesthesia for tonometry: A. Tetracaine B. Oxethazaine C. Ropivacaine D. Benoxinate

Last Answer : D. Benoxinate

Description : Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution for infiltration anaesthesia affords the following except: A. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia B. Makes the injection less painful C. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery D. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Makes the injection less painful

Description : Injection of adrenaline along with a local anaesthetic serves the following purpose: A. Lowers the concentration of the local anaesthetic to produce nerve block B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia C. Increases the anaesthetised area D. Reduces the local toxicity of the local anaesthetic

Last Answer : B. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia

Description : Indications of centrally acting muscle relaxants include all of the following except: A. Balanced anaesthesia B. Traumatic muscle spasms C. Torticollis D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Last Answer : A. Balanced anaesthesia

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Description : The following does not apply to cancer chemotherapy: A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells B. Drugs are generally used at maximum tolerated ... D. Combination regimens using several drugs in succession are superior to single drug used continuously

Last Answer : A. Each treatment with a cytotoxic drug kills a constant number of malignant cells

Description : General anaesthetics produce immobility in response to painful surgical stimuli by acting primarily at the: A. Motor cortex B. Basal ganglia C. Thalamus D. Spinal cord

Last Answer : D. Spinal cord

Description : Select the drug which administered orally causes cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate surgical abortion or induction of labour: A. Mifepristone B. Raloxifene C. Natural progesterone D. Levonorgestre

Last Answer : A. Mifepristone

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP: A. Noradrenaline B. Isoprenaline C. Mephentermine D. Isoxsuprine

Last Answer : C. Mephentermine

Description : Ossiculoplasty is defined as a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones. Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing. b) surgical repair of the eardrum. Surgical repair of the eardrum is ... . Tympanotomy or myringotomy is the term used to refer to incision into the tympanic membrane.

Last Answer : a) surgical reconstruction of the middle ear bones. Ossiculoplasty is performed to restore hearing.

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the management of a patient with hemophilia A undergoing an elective surgical operation? a. Concentrates of factor VIII should be given ... observed e. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, e Although the half-life of factor VIII is 2.9 days in normal individuals, the half-life of factor VIII concentrates is 9 to l8 hours. Levels of 80% to ... infection in the hemophilia population. A new recombinant preparation of factor VIII offers the advantage of being virus-free

Description : An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will ... He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Last Answer : D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Description : Intradermal test for penicillin sensitivity should be performed by injecting the following quantity of sodium benzyl penicillin: A. 10 U B. 100 U C. 1000 U D. 5000 U

Last Answer : A. 10 U

Description : Select the nonapeptide which can be generated from plasma globulin by snake venom enzymes, causes fall in BP and intense pain when applied to blister base: A. Kallidin B. Bradykinin C. Angiotensin II D. Angiotensin III

Last Answer : B. Bradykinin

Description : Angiotensin III is equipotent to angiotensin II in: A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex B. Promoting Na+ and water reabsorption by direct intrarenal action C. Causing vasoconstriction D. Contracting intestinal smooth muscle

Last Answer : A. Releasing aldosterone from adrenal cortex

Description : The peculiarity of Homeopathic treatment of PRIMARY Stage of PSORA is that it demands Options: 1) Specific Remedy In Large Doses 2) Surgical Intervention 3) Local Application 4) Nosodotherapy

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 1) Specific Remedy In Large Doses

Description : Any advice for a surgical virgin facing his or her first operation (s)

Last Answer : answer:I have had a bunch of surgeries and my experience has been mostly uninteresting. It hurts for a while afterwards, the general anasthesia takes longer to get over as you get older (mostly in the form of ... drugs. I hope it goes well, you heal quickly, and it fixes what's broken. Good luck!

Description : What'd make a great card to send to a motorcyclist who's just had a surgical operation?

Last Answer : You’ll be back on your bike in no time!

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

Description : Which of the following local anaesthetics is indicated in case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation, A. Lidocaine B. Mepivacaine C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

Last Answer : C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

Description : Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Antibiotic therapy B. Poor surgical techniques C. Aspirin D. Codeine

Last Answer : D. Codeine

Description : For shear strength, triaxial shear test is suitable because (A) It can be performed under all three drainage conditions (B) Precise measurement of the pore pressure and volume change during the test is possible (C) Stress distribution on the failure plane, is uniform (D) All the above

Last Answer : (D) All the above

Description : A triaxial shear test is preferred to direct shear test, because (A) It can be performed under all three drainage conditions with complete control (B) Precise measurement of pore pressure and change in ... possible (C) Stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer: Option A

Description : Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are ... iv are true, i, iii & v are false d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

Last Answer : c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false

Description : Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program? I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software. II. It provides management with insights into the state ... software development activities. A. I, II&III B.II, III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV

Last Answer : C.I, II&IV

Description : Which of the following operations can be performed by using FTP. i) Connect to a remote host ii) Select directory iii) Define the transfer mode iv) List file available A) i, and ii only B) i, ii and iii only C) ii, iii and iv only D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Last Answer : D) All i, ii, iii and iv