Most cases of osteomyelitis are caused by which of the
following microorganisms?
a) Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.
b) Proteus species
While Proteus species are frequently found in osteomyelitis, they do
not cause the majority of bone infections.
c) Pseudomonas species
While Pseudomonas species are frequently found in osteomyelitis, they
do not cause the majority of bone infections.
d) Escherichia coli
While E. coli is frequently found in osteomyelitis, it does not cause the
majority of bone infections

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus aureus causes 70-80% of bone infections.

Related questions

Description : Which of the following infections can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus: A. Thyroiditis B. Pancreatitis C. Osteomyelitis D. Scarlatina E. Pneumonia

Last Answer : C. Osteomyelitis

Description : What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus ?

Last Answer : Toxic shock syndrome

Description : Impetigo is a skin disease caused by a. a species of Haemophilus. b. a species of Chlamydia. c. Bacteroides fragilis. d. Staphylococcus aureus.

Last Answer : d. Staphylococcus aureus.

Description : Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools in the summer. It is often caused by _____. a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Pseudomonas d. A-C are correct

Last Answer : d. A-C are correct

Description : The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

Last Answer : A. A localised purulent infection of the skin

Description : What is the function of Staphylococcus aureus ?

Last Answer : Staphylococcus aureus is one of the best medicine for overcoming male impotence. This is especially true for those whose flag has been broken due to excessive sexual activity or ... is because staphylococcus aureus is equally effective in both sexually transmitted diseases and traumatic diseases.

Description : Is an example of a bacterium (choose all that apply) chicken pox the flu ameoba Bacillus anthracis yeast parameceum Staphylococcus aureus mushrooms?

Last Answer : Need answer

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Description : Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for A A. early chick mortality B. Necrotic enteritis C. respiratory distress D. None of the these

Last Answer : early chick mortality

Description : Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease? a. Group A streptococcus b. Group B streptococcus c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. strep viridins group

Last Answer : a. Group A streptococcus

Description : : All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may cause nosocomial disease except: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. b. Escherichia coli. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Mycobacterium leprae.

Last Answer : d. Mycobacterium leprae.

Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus.

Description : Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with a. Helicobacter Pylori. b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Escherichia Coli. d. Salmonella Typhi.

Last Answer : c. Escherichia Coli.

Description : Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)? a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus cereus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium perfringens

Last Answer : a. Escherichia coli

Description : Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. Streptococcus Pyogenes b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

Last Answer : b. Staphylococcus Aureus

Description : Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with a. Helicobacter Pylori. b. Staphylococcus Aureus. c. Escherichia Coli. d. Salmonella Typhi.

Last Answer : c. Escherichia Coli.

Description : Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)? a. Escherichia coli b. Bacillus cereus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium perfringens

Last Answer : a. Escherichia coli

Description : .If a 1:600 dilution of a test compound kills a standard population of Staphylococcus aureus in 10minutes but not 5 minutes while a 1:60 dilution of phenol kills the population in thesame time, what is the phenol coefficient of the test compound? A- 1 B- 5 C- .10 D- .50

Last Answer : .10

Description : Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying? A- .Treponema palladium B- Mycobacterium tuberculosis C- Staphylococcus aureus D- Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Last Answer : .Treponema palladium

Description : Which is of the following organism is an Gram-ve organism A Staphylococcus aureus B Bacillus Subtilis C Vibrio cholerae D Clostridium tetani

Last Answer : C Vibrio cholerae

Description : Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection: A. Clarithromycin B. Clindamycin C. Linezolid D. Lincomycin

Last Answer : C. Linezolid

Description : The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is: A. Cloxacillin B. Vancomycin C. Erythromycin D. Amikacin

Last Answer : B. Vancomycin

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization ... to a particular pathogen. d) Infection Infection refers to host interaction with an organism.

Last Answer : a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Description : Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus. b) Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcus neoformans is ... is thought to be protozoan but believed to be a fungus based on its structure.

Last Answer : a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

Description : Which of the following terms most precisely refers to an infection acquired in the hospital that was not present or incubating at the time of hospital admission? a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC ... in humans has increased within the past two decades or threaten to increase in the near future.

Last Answer : a) Nosocomial infection A 1970 CDC study found that about one-third of nosocomial infections could be prevented when effective infection control programs were in place.

Description : Agammaglobulinemia is also known as a) Bruton's disease. Bruton's disease is a sex-linked disease that results in infants born with the disorder suffering severe infections soon after ... of thrombocytopenia. d) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) CVID is another term for hypogammaglobulinemia.

Last Answer : a) Bruton’s disease. Bruton’s disease is a sex-linked disease that results in infants born with the disorder suffering severe infections soon after birth

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. ... school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Last Answer : a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

Description : When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a ... the external vulva and vaginal walls. d) chlamydia. Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

Last Answer : a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a tachycardia characterized by abrupt onset, abrupt cessation, and a QRS of normal duration? a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT ... fibrillation Atrial fibrillation causes a rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of atrial musculature.

Last Answer : a) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia PAT is often caused by a conduction problem in the AV node and is now called AV nodal reentry tachycardia.

Description : Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are ... 30-40% of cases. d) 50-75% of cases. Retinoblastoma is hereditary in 30-40% of cases.

Last Answer : a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : 70. The senior nurse observes that Marina occasionally does not follow agreed upon interventions. The senior nurse reports that Marina should improve in which of the following?

Last Answer : C. Compliance to standards

Description : Which of the skin microbiota is responsible for most cases of the inflammatory condition of acne? a. Propionebacterium b. Staphylococcus c. Corynebacterium d. Acinetobacter

Last Answer : a. Propionebacterium

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : A metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone is a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone. b) osteoporosis ... of the joint disorders. OA affects the articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium.

Last Answer : a) osteomalacia Osteomalacia is a metabolic bone disease characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the ... ossification. Adequate immobilization is essential until there is x-ray evidence of bone formation with ossification.

Last Answer : a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.