A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs
a) within 1-7 days of injury.
Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24
hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late,
occurring more than 7 days following injury.
b) within 4 hours of injury.
Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24
hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late,
occurring more than 7 days following injury.
c) within 24 hours of injury.
Posttraumatic seizures occurring within 24 hours of injury are
classified as immediate seizures.
d) more than 7 days following surgery.
Posttraumatic seizures occurring more than 7 days following surgery
are classified as late seizures.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) within 1-7 days of injury.
Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24
hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late,
occurring more than 7 days following injury.
by

Related questions

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Which of the following statement(s) about epileptic seizure is/are correct (1)“Jacksonian march” represents spread of seizure activity over motor cortex (2) Focal seizures of temporal cortex cause psychic symptoms (3) Typical absence seizures are followed by post ictal confusion (4) Epilepsia partialis continua may continue for hours or days Options: 1) 1, 2 and 4 2) 3 and 4 3) 1 and 4 4) 2, 3 and 4

Description : Which of the following statement(s) about epileptic seizure is/are correct (1) Jacksonian march represents spread of seizure activity over motor cortex (2) Focal seizures of temporal cortex cause psychic symptoms (3) Typical absence seizures are ... 1, 2 and 4 2) 3 and 4 3) 1 and 4 4) 2, 3 and 4

Last Answer : Correct Answer: 1) 1, 2 and 4

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually two to three hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

Description : Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling ... in the bladder after voiding, straight catheterization may be performed for complete bladder emptying.

Last Answer : a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

The following is true in the treatment of epilepsy except: A. The choice of drug depends on the cause of epilepsy and not on the seizure type B. Treatment should be instituted as early as possible C. Treatment is generally started with a single drug and the other drug is added or substituted according to response D. Withdrawal of drug can be attempted if no seizures have occurred for 3-5 years

Description : The following is true in the treatment of epilepsy except: A. The choice of drug depends on the cause of epilepsy and not on the seizure type B. Treatment should be instituted as early as possible ... to response D. Withdrawal of drug can be attempted if no seizures have occurred for 3-5 years

Last Answer : A. The choice of drug depends on the cause of epilepsy and not on the seizure type

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Description : Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. b) acute rejection. Acute ... term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

Last Answer : a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure ... responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration. b) 10-15 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 10–15 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated. c) 30-35 mm Hg water pressure. A measure of 30–35 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is overinflated. d) 0-5 mm Hg water pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Description : Which of the following ranges identifies the amount of pressure within the endotracheal tube cuff that is believed to prevent both injury and aspiration? a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the ... pressure A measure of 0-5 mm Hg water pressure would indicate that the cuff is underinflated.

Last Answer : a) 20-25 mm Hg water pressure. Usually the pressure is maintained at less than 25 cm water pressure to prevent injury and at more than 20 cm water pressure to prevent aspiration.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to Fowler’s B. Reassure the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Description : In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse assesses coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration by listening over the trachea with a stethoscope. The nurse should immediately A. Position client to ... the client that he is doing fine C. Suction the tracheostomy tube D. Report to the surgeon

Last Answer : Which of the following expected outcomes for the patient is most relevant for the nursing diagnosis “At risk for imbalanced nutrition related to impaired swallowing”? A. Appropriate body weight maintained B. Fear of choking relieved C. Oral intake increased D. Swallowing of soft foods facilitated

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

Description : Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. ... rails and application of mitts are the appropriate interventions in the agitated head-injured patient.

Last Answer : a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

A good friend of mine had a serious seizure. How well does medication prevent further seizures?

Description : A good friend of mine had a serious seizure. How well does medication prevent further seizures?

Last Answer : It depends on the underlying problem.

Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Description : Select the factor which indicates that withdrawal of the successfully used antiepileptic medication is likely to result in recurrence of seizures: A. Childhood epilepsy B. Partial seizures C. Treatment started soon after seizure onset D. Absence of EEG abnormality

Last Answer : B. Partial seizures

The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Description : The following antiepileptic drug raises pentylene tetrazol seizure threshold but does not modify maximal electroshock seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Carbamazepine C. Primidone D. Phenobarbitone

Last Answer : A. Ethosuximide

A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

Description : A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

Last Answer : D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Description : Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral ... muscular atrophy. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Last Answer : a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. Bacteria, protein exudate, and necrotic tissue all will compromise this process b. Epithelial cells exhibit contact proliferation c. Epithelialization occurs only from the margins of the wound d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Description : Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. ... d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The initial step of epithelialization involves epithelial cells from the basal layer of the wound edge flattening and migrating across the wound, completing wound coverage within 24- ... abrasions and burns may scar significantly. Whenever the dermis is incised, a scar will form

The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Description : The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. b) anuria. Anuria is used to ... Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. d) dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

Description : Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the intestines by osmosis? a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 ... by surfactant action on the colonic epithelium, resulting in mixing of aqueous and fatty substances.

Last Answer : a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia) Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2 hours of consumption.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide. b- Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp. c- Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Description : An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... - Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Last Answer : a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide

8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? M07*********** A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis) B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Description : 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Last Answer : A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis)

A young child presents with respiratory distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a pH of 7.25, a PCO2 of 7.5kPa, a PO2 of 8.5kPa, and a base excess of -4. Which of the following interpretations is correct? 1) Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary dysplasia. 2) Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure. 3) Immediate intubation is required. 4) Results are consistent with late severe asthma. 5) Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis.

Description : A young child presents with respiratory distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a pH of 7.25, a PCO2 of 7.5kPa, a PO2 of 8.5kPa, and a base excess of -4. Which of the ... required. 4) Results are consistent with late severe asthma. 5) Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis.

Last Answer : Answers-4 In interpreting blood gas results, the following sequence may be useful: Inspect the pH: Is it low, normal or high? Inspect the CO2: Is it low, normal or high? Inspect the PO2: Is ... excess and normal pH. Bicarbonate is usually only considered if the base deficit exceeds about -8 or 00.

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and immediate action? A. Stop the intern and do the catheterization yourself B. Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Description : When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and ... . Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Last Answer : B. Offer to change the catheter

Should a person with Traumatic Brain Injury be inhaling second hand pot smoke?

Description : Should a person with Traumatic Brain Injury be inhaling second hand pot smoke?

Last Answer : Need answer

What are common symptoms of a traumatic brain injury?

Description : What are common symptoms of a traumatic brain injury?

Last Answer : Any injury involving the head should be taken seriously. She could have a concussion or a unresolved blood clot in her brain from the fall. She needs to be evaluated by a neurologist. Untreated, ... ,severe vomiting,bleeding from the ears,and difficulty in waking up would be symptoms to watch for.

Is it possible for a patient with traumatic brain injury to recover 100%?

Description : Is it possible for a patient with traumatic brain injury to recover 100%?

Last Answer : It depends on the severity of the injury and what kind of injury it is. I can say that it is unlikely for someone to fully recover from a traumatic brain injury, as even the known "miracle recoveries" often report mental fatigue and 'not being the same as before'.

Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues of a joint? a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. b) Dislocation Dislocation refers ... separation or dislocation of joint surfaces. d) Strain Strain refers to a muscle pull or tear.

Last Answer : a) Sprain A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion.

Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Description : Injury to the ______ nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop. b) Sciatic Injury to the ... footdrop. d) Achilles Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of footdrop.

Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Description : Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An ... lower blood pressure. d) Voiding The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia is a distended bladder.

Last Answer : a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.