Description : Assertion : Antigen can be easily recognized because it has antigenic determinants Reason : The recognition ability is innate
Last Answer : Assertion : Antigen can be easily recognized because it has antigenic determinants Reason : The ... If both the assertion and reason are false
Description : The term used for plasmids possessing both RTF and r determinants is A- non self-transmissible plasmids B- non conjugative plasmids C- conjugative plasmids D- none of the above
Last Answer : conjugative plasmids
Description : Briefly , describe about the foreignness of a molecule, which makes a substance antigenic?
Last Answer : To be antigenic macromolecules must come from foreign source. Antigens from related species are less antigenic than that of unrelated species. More distance the antigen source the better is the antigenesity. ... good antigens in animals, where as duck serum proteins are not good antigens for chick.
Description : In Type I hypersensitivity the first dose of antigen is the _____. a. Immunizing Dose b. Sensitizing Dose c. Allergizing Dose d. Activating Dose
Last Answer : b. Sensitizing Dose
Description : Severe combined immunodeficiency disease refers to a condition wherein a patient a. Cannot produce T and B cells. b. Interferon. c. Antigen-presenting cells. d. Hydrogen peroxide in phagocytes
Last Answer : a. Cannot produce T and B cells.
Description : What is the advantage of a recombinant subunit vaccine? a. it can't cause disease b. adverse reactions are rare because only the important subunits of the antigen are included c. the vaccine is not made from blood fragments d. A-C are correct
Last Answer : d. A-C are correct
Description : A hybridoma cell a. Secretes monoclonal antibodies. b. Presents antigens on its surface. c. Secretes polyclonal antibodies. d. Is an antigen-presenting cell
Last Answer : d. Is an antigen-presenting cell
Description : Titer refers to a. The most concentrated antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction. b. The first diluted antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction. c. The precipitation line ... antigen-antibody reaction. d. The most dilute antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction.
Last Answer : d. The most dilute antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction.
Description : An attenuated vaccine contains a. Inactive toxins. b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens. c. Killed bacteria. d. Noninfective antigen subunits.
Last Answer : b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens.
Description : _____ cells have antibodies on their surface that perform receptor functions by binding to antigen (epitope). a. T b. B c. NK d. A-C are correct
Last Answer : b. B
Description : Acquired immunity usually involves protein receptors on B and T cells that recognize discrete regions of the antigen called _____. a. haptens b. epitopes c. antibodies d. protein receptors
Last Answer : b. epitopes
Description : Which one of the following is not an antigen? a. A toxin b. A virus c. A bacterial cell d. All (A-C) are antigens
Last Answer : d. All (A-C) are antigens
Description : Performs and granzymes are found in a. Helper T cells. b. Antigen-presenting cells. c. Cytotoxic T cells. d. B cells.
Last Answer : c. Cytotoxic T cells.
Description : An antigen binding site on the IgG antibody is a combination of a. One variable region from a light chain and one from a heavy chain. b. Two variable regions from two light chains. c. Two ... from two heavy chains. d. One variable region from a constant region and one from a variable region.
Last Answer : a. One variable region from a light chain and one from a heavy chain.
Description : Clonal selection includes a. Antigen-receptor binding on B cells. b. Antibody secretion recognizing same epitope as on B cell receptors. c. Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells and memory cells. d. All the above (A—C) are correct.
Last Answer : d. All the above (A—C) are correct.
Description : In which of the following case a large lattice is formed? A.Antibody is in excess B.Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion C.Antigen is in excess D.None of these
Last Answer : B.Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion
Description : Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells. The protein molecule through which theypresent antigen in human is A.actin B.interleukin C.HLA D.CD8
Last Answer : D.CD8
Description : The role of the M cell is to A- .trap virus in mucus and prevent entry B- induce apoptosis in virus-infected small intestinal epithelia cells C- pass bacteria or virus to underlying macrophages for ... and presentation of antigen D- they use their cilia to propel mucus out of the small intestine
Last Answer : pass bacteria or virus to underlying macrophages for processing and presentation of antigen
Description : Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells. The protein molecule through whichthey present antigen in human is A- actin B- nterleukin C- HLA D- .CD8
Last Answer : .CD8
Description : Chemically an antigen may be A- lipid B- protein C- polysaccharide D- any of these
Last Answer : any of these
Description : Which is not an antigen-presenting cell (or APC)? A- B cell B- .Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (or PMN) C- Dendritic cell D- All of the above
Last Answer : .Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (or PMN)
Description : CD8 surface antigen is present in A- cytotoxic T cells B- .suppresssor T cells C- both (a) and (b) D- none of these
Last Answer : both (a) and (b)
Description : Which of the following expresses CD3 surface antigen? A- Granulocytes B- T cells C- Monocytes D- B cells
Last Answer : T cells
Description : Numerous antibodies can be prepared, against one antigen, each binds to unique epitopes. How is this antibody diversity generated? A- By rearrangements of the DNA encoding the variable regions of the heavy ... proteins can physically change their shape to bind different epitopes D- Both (a) and (b)
Last Answer : Both (a) and (b)
Description : Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?A- O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) B- Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA) C- Braun lipoprotein D- .Electron transport system components
Last Answer : O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Description : Define the term road-density. Explain with examples the two main determinants of road density in India. -Geography
Last Answer : Road density is the length of roads per 100 sq kms of an area. Determinants of road density are level of economic development and nature of terrain. (i) Construction of roads is ... roads is relatively better in plains as compared to roads in high altitude areas, rainy and forested areas.
Description : Identify the determinants of the outcomes of the politics of social division and explain them. -SST 10th
Last Answer : The three determinants of the outcomes of the politics of social division: (i) People's perception: If people view their identities to be exclusive and superior, it becomes difficult ... the reasonable demands of a minority community, social divisions become less threatening for the country.
Description : What is the factors that affect determinants of price elasticity of demand?
Last Answer : Need answer
Description : Which of the following are determinants of the host response to surgical stress? a. Gender b. Age c. Nutritional status d. Body composition
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The pattern of physiologic changes elicited in response to surgical stress results from the specific interaction of an individual patient with a stressful stimulus. Several ... net loss of nitrogen after major elective abdominal surgery generally being lower in women than in men
Description : Determinants of cerebral blood flow include: A. Preoperative neurologic dysfunction. B. Arterial CO 2 tension. C. Arterial O 2 tension. D. Systemic arterial pressure. E. All of the above.
Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: Determinants of cerebral blood flow include arterial CO 2 and O 2 tensions, systemic arterial pressure, and temperature. Other factors that may affect cerebral ... and intracranial pressure are head position, jugular venous obstruction, and positive end-expiratory pressure
Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.
Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication
Description : In the autonomic regulation of blood pressure (a) Cardiac output is maintained constant at the expense of other hemodynamic variables (b) Elevation of blood pressure results in elevated ... the sensitivity of the sensory baroreceptor nerve endings might cause an increase in sympathetic discharge
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : In the AIDAS theory of selling, 'D' stands for 1. Determinants 2. Demand 3. Desire 4. Development 5. None of these
Last Answer : Desire
Description : In the AIDAS theory of selling 'D' stands for 1. Determinants 2. Demand 3. Desire 4. Development 5. None of these
Description : Which of the following terms describes the amount of blood ejected per heartbeat? a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility. b) Cardiac output Cardiac output ... must overcome to eject blood during systole and is one of the determinants of stroke volume.
Last Answer : a) Stroke volume Stroke volume is determined by preload, afterload, and contractility.
Description : An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or minimized is called_______ a. Feasible function b. Optimal function c. Criterion function d. None of the above
Last Answer : b. Optimal function
Description : Product -portfolio analysis is based on the idea that A)a firm's market share and market attractiveness are factors for a marketing strategy. B)a firm has a profitable impact on ... marketing strategy. D)a product's market growth rate and market attractiveness determine the marketing strategy.
Last Answer : C)a product's market growth rate and its relative market share are important determinants of its marketing strategy
Description : Probably the most important of the following determinants of the effectiveness of learning is Options: A) The method of presentation B) The need of meaningfulness and understanding C) The concentration of the learning periods D) The degree of over-learning
Last Answer : B) The need of meaningfulness and understanding
Description : Some scientists‘ estimate that in nature, _____ of all microbial activities occur in biofilms. a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 0.45 d. 0.6 e. 0.99
Last Answer : e. 0.99
Description : Usually viruses are separated into several large groups based primarily on A.nature of the host B.nucleic acid characteristics C.capsid symmetry D.diameter of the viroin or nucleocapsid
Last Answer : A.nature of the host
Description : The physical nature of genomes is studied under A-structural genomics B- comparative genomics C- proteo genomics D-functional genomics
Last Answer : structural genomics
Description : Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 main types of water pollution? a. Physical pollution b. Chemical pollution c. Thermal pollution d. Biological pollution
Last Answer : c. Thermal pollution
Description : The stomach is a chemical barrier to infection because the stomach a. Contains bile. b. Harbors helicobacterpylori, a member of the host microbiota. c. Possesses defensive cells. d. Has an acid ph.
Last Answer : d. Has an acid ph.
Description : Rivers' postulates can be used to a. locate an oncogene in a cell that is cancerous. b. develop inactivated viruses for use in a vaccine. c. eliminate viruses with certain chemical agents. d. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.
Last Answer : d. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.
Description : Excision repair would correct DNA damage caused by a. Antibiotics. b. UV Light. c. A Chemical Mutagen. d. A Dna Replication Error.
Last Answer : b. UV Light.
Description : Why is moist heat more versatile than dry heat? a. It More Easily Penetrates Materials. b. Water Molecules Conduct Heat Better Than Air c. It Denatures Proteins By Changing Their Structure And Chemical Bonds d. A-C Are Correct
Last Answer : d. A-C Are Correct
Description : Phenolics include chemical agents a. Such As The Iodophores. b. Derived From Carbolic Acid. c. Used As Tiñctures. d. Such As Formaldehyde. ,
Last Answer : d. Such As Formaldehyde. ,
Description : If a chemical has a phenol coefficient (PC) of 63, it means the chemical a. ‗Is Better Than One With A PC Of 22., b. Will Kill 63P/O Of Bacteria. c. Kills Microbes At 63°C. d. Will Kill All Bacteria In 63 Minutes.
Last Answer : a. ‗Is Better Than One With A PC Of 22.,
Description : All the following are chemical parameters considered when selecting an antiseptic or disinfectant except: a. Dehydration. b. Temperature. c. Stability. d. Ph
Last Answer : b. Temperature.