The newest and safest vaccines under development are _____. a. attenuated vaccines b. toxoid vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. conjugated vaccines

The newest and safest vaccines under development are _____.
a. attenuated vaccines
b. toxoid vaccines
c. DNA vaccines
d. conjugated vaccines
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. DNA vaccines
by

Related questions

The danger of attenuated vaccines is they should not be given to _____. a. infants b. young children c. immunocompromised patients d. all of the above (A-C)

Description : The danger of attenuated vaccines is they should not be given to _____. a. infants b. young children c. immunocompromised patients d. all of the above (A-C)

Last Answer : c. immunocompromised patients

Why are inactivated vaccines safer than attenuated vaccines? a. they can't mutate and cause the disease b. they last a lifetime c. they are easier to administer d. they aren't any better

Description : Why are inactivated vaccines safer than attenuated vaccines? a. they can't mutate and cause the disease b. they last a lifetime c. they are easier to administer d. they aren't any better

Last Answer : a. they can't mutate and cause the disease

A/an _____ vaccine contains inactivated toxins. a. toxigenicb. toxoid c. antitoxin d. immunotoxic

Description : A/an _____ vaccine contains inactivated toxins. a. toxigenic b. toxoid c. antitoxin d. immunotoxic

Last Answer : b. toxoid

Attenuated viruses are those that _____. a. can be used to treat viral disease. b. give rise to viroids and prions. c. multiply in cells but at a low rate. d. have been treated with chemicals such as formaldehyde.

Description : Attenuated viruses are those that _____. a. can be used to treat viral disease. b. give rise to viroids and prions. c. multiply in cells but at a low rate. d. have been treated with chemicals such as formaldehyde.

Last Answer : c. multiply in cells but at a low rate.

Often it may be necessary to add a substance to a vaccine to improve its ability to stimulate the immune system called a/an ____. a. adjuvant b. conjugant c. toxoid d. formulant

Description : Often it may be necessary to add a substance to a vaccine to improve its ability to stimulate the immune system called a/an ____. a. adjuvant b. conjugant c. toxoid d. formulant

Last Answer : a. adjuvant

Which of the following is a conjugate vaccine with tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? a. Salk polio b. Sabin polio c. influenza d. Hib

Description : Which of the following is a conjugate vaccine with tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? a. Salk polio b. Sabin polio c. influenza d. Hib

Last Answer : d. Hib

DTaP is a toxoid vaccine that prevents ______. a. Diptheria b. Pneumonia c. Polio d. Diarrhea

Description : DTaP is a toxoid vaccine that prevents ______. a. Diptheria b. Pneumonia c. Polio d. Diarrhea

Last Answer : a. Diptheria

What is the advantage of the attenuated viruses in a vaccine?

Description : What is the advantage of the attenuated viruses in a vaccine?

Last Answer : Attenuated viruses can be taken orally because they will survive passage into the gastrointestinal tract and will be absorbed into the blood stream. The method of administration is therefore easier than by ... this reason they may be advantageous when an epidemic is taking place or is anticipated. 

An attenuated vaccine is one that a. Can provide life-long immunity. b. Contains live microbes or viruses. c. Is closest to the natural pathogens. d. All the above (a-c) are correct.

Description : An attenuated vaccine is one that a. Can provide life-long immunity. b. Contains live microbes or viruses. c. Is closest to the natural pathogens. d. All the above (a-c) are correct.

Last Answer : d. All the above (a-c) are correct.

An attenuated vaccine contains a. Inactive toxins. b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens. c. Killed bacteria. d. Noninfective antigen subunits.

Description : An attenuated vaccine contains a. Inactive toxins. b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens. c. Killed bacteria. d. Noninfective antigen subunits.

Last Answer : b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens.

The development of global regulatory systems in prokaryotes A- determines the exact location of the cell on the globe B- aids in DNA replication C- .determines the exact location of the replication site D- regulates many genes under varying environmental conditions

Description : The development of global regulatory systems in prokaryotes A- determines the exact location of the cell on the globe B- aids in DNA replication C- .determines the exact location of the replication site D- regulates many genes under varying environmental conditions

Last Answer : regulates many genes under varying environmental conditions

Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____. a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA. b. reverses the normal multiplication of cells from a low rate to a high rate. c. reverses the ability of viruses to associate with cells. d. reverses the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to continue multiplying in living cells.

Description : Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____. a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA. b. reverses the normal ... the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to continue multiplying in living cells.

Last Answer : a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA.

A DNA probe and PCR are being used to identify _____. a. HIV infection b. HPV in PAP smears c. coli in water quality tests d. A-C are correct

Description : A DNA probe and PCR are being used to identify _____. a. HIV infection b. HPV in PAP smears c. coli in water quality tests d. A-C are correct

Last Answer : d. A-C are correct

A bacterial cell that is transformed _____. a. Cannot Form A Conjugation Pilus. b. Has Undergone A Frameshift Mutation. c. Has Acquired Dna From The Environment. d. Will Probably Die Within 24 Hours.

Description : A bacterial cell that is transformed _____. a. Cannot Form A Conjugation Pilus. b. Has Undergone A Frameshift Mutation. c. Has Acquired Dna From The Environment. d. Will Probably Die Within 24 Hours.

Last Answer : c. Has Acquired Dna From The Environment.

A transgenic organism is one that _____. a. Has Donated A DNA Fragment To Another Organism. b. Contains A Gene From Another Organism. c. Contains Useless "Genetic Debris." d. Has Exchanged Gene Loci Within The Organism.

Description : A transgenic organism is one that _____. a. Has Donated A DNA Fragment To Another Organism. b. Contains A Gene From Another Organism. c. Contains Useless "Genetic Debris." d. Has Exchanged Gene Loci Within The Organism.

Last Answer : b. Contains A Gene From Another Organism.

During the process of lysogeny _____. a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment. c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids. d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.

Description : During the process of lysogeny _____. a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome. b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment. c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids. d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.

Last Answer : a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.

The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that _____. a. Two Types Of Viruses Be Present. b. The Conjugating Bacteria Be Deprived Of Nutrients. c. Two Bacteria Exchange Dna. d. Two Live Bacteria Come Together.

Description : The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that _____. a. Two Types Of Viruses Be Present. b. The Conjugating Bacteria Be Deprived Of Nutrients. c. Two Bacteria Exchange Dna. d. Two Live Bacteria Come Together.

Last Answer : d. Two Live Bacteria Come Together.

The double helix is a structural arrangement associated with _____. a. A Polysaccharide. b. The DNA Molecule. c. Glucose Molecules In Starch. d. A Protein.

Description : The double helix is a structural arrangement associated with _____. a. A Polysaccharide. b. The DNA Molecule. c. Glucose Molecules In Starch. d. A Protein.

Last Answer : b. The DNA Molecule.

What is a toxoid ?

Description : What is a toxoid ?

Last Answer : Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid.

Discuss with your teacher what does ‘a suitable gene’ means, in the context of DNA vaccines. -Science

Description : Discuss with your teacher what does ‘a suitable gene’ means, in the context of DNA vaccines. -Science

Last Answer : A DNA vaccine consists of a suitable gene encoding an antigenic protein, inserted into a plasmid, and then incorporated into the cells in a target animal. The plasmid vaccine carrying the DNA (gene ... on their surface, the immune system is alerted, which then triggers a range of immune responses.

Influenza vaccines can be contraindicated to patients who are allergic to the preservatives of the vaccine, e.g. _____ a) Neomycin b) Streptomycin c) Gentamycin d) Doxycycline e) Clavulanic acid

Description : Influenza vaccines can be contraindicated to patients who are allergic to the preservatives of the vaccine, e.g. _____ a) Neomycin b) Streptomycin c) Gentamycin d) Doxycycline e) Clavulanic acid

Last Answer : Ans: A

Bacitracin, Polymyxin and Neomycin are used together for topical skin infections under the name of _____. a. Neosporin b. Vancomycin c. Cephalosporin d. Nystatin.

Description : Bacitracin, Polymyxin and Neomycin are used together for topical skin infections under the name of _____. a. Neosporin b. Vancomycin c. Cephalosporin d. Nystatin.

Last Answer : a. Neosporin

The safest form of Crossed Cheque is _____ A. Double Crossing B. General Crossing C. Special Crossing D. Account payee crossing E. None of the Above

Description : The safest form of Crossed Cheque is _____ A. Double Crossing B. General Crossing C. Special Crossing D. Account payee crossing E. None of the Above

Last Answer : D. Account payee crossing Explanation: In Account payee crossing the amount will not be paid to anybody over the counter. It will be credited to the account of the payee only. Thus account payee crossing ensures safe transfer of funds.

Active immunity can be produced by administration of (A) Killed bacteria or viruses (B) Live attenuated bacteria or viruses (C) Toxoids (D) All of these

Description : Active immunity can be produced by administration of (A) Killed bacteria or viruses (B) Live attenuated bacteria or viruses (C) Toxoids (D) All of these

Last Answer : Answer : D

Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain (a) gamma globulin (b) attenuated pathogens (c) activated pathogens (d) harvested antibodies

Description : Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain (a) gamma globulin (b) attenuated pathogens (c) activated pathogens (d) harvested antibodies

Last Answer : (b) attenuated pathogens

Common cold differs from pneumonia in that (a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficienc(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine (c) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae (d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.y disease

Description : Common cold differs from pneumonia in that (a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease (b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated ... infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

Last Answer : (d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

EMD is best described by which statement? ∙ A. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light. ∙ B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled with light. ∙ C. 70 percent of input light should be measured at the output. ∙ D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber.

Description : EMD is best described by which statement? ∙ A. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light. ∙ B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the ... be measured at the output. ∙ D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber.

Last Answer : 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light.

EMDis best describe bywhich statement? a. 70percentofthe corediameter and70%ofthefiberNAshouldbe filled with light b.70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled with light c.70 percent of input light should be measured at the output d.70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber

Description : EMDis best describe bywhich statement? a. 70percentofthe corediameter and70%ofthefiberNAshouldbe filled with light b.70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled with ... the output d.70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber

Last Answer : a. 70percentofthe corediameter and70%ofthefiberNAshouldbe filled with light

The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Description : In congestive heart failure patients: A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated

Last Answer : C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective, but the same may work parenterally

During the final stage of cell division, the mitotic apparatus disappears, the chromosomes become attenuated, the centrioles duplicate and split, the nuclear membrane becomes reconstituted and the nucleolus reappears. This phase of cell division is known as:

Description : During the final stage of cell division, the mitotic apparatus disappears, the chromosomes become attenuated, the centrioles duplicate and split, the nuclear membrane becomes reconstituted and the nucleolus reappears. This ... as: a) prophase (pron: prO-phase) b) metaphase c) anaphase d) telophase

Last Answer : ANSWER: D -- Telophase

Tetracyclines interfere with a. Translation. b. Transcription. c. Dna Replication. d. Membrane Function.

Description : Tetracyclines interfere with a. Translation. b. Transcription. c. Dna Replication. d. Membrane Function.

Last Answer : a. Translation.

The sulfonamides interfere with bacterial metabolism by a. blocking cell wall synthesis. b. disrupting folic acid metabolism. c. reacting with bacterial cell membranes. d. inhibiting DNA replication.

Description : The sulfonamides interfere with bacterial metabolism by a. blocking cell wall synthesis. b. disrupting folic acid metabolism. c. reacting with bacterial cell membranes. d. inhibiting DNA replication.

Last Answer : b. disrupting folic acid metabolism.

New approaches to antibiotic therapy include a. Carbohydrate targets in the wall LPS. b. unregulating DNA replication. c. Discovering new and unique antibiotics. d. All of the above (A—C) are correct.

Description : New approaches to antibiotic therapy include a. Carbohydrate targets in the wall LPS. b. unregulating DNA replication. c. Discovering new and unique antibiotics. d. All of the above (A—C) are correct.

Last Answer : d. All of the above (A—C) are correct.

Antifungal drugs, such as_ __, inhibit proper formation of a. Miconazole; A Plasma Membrane b. Griseofulvin; Dna c. Ketoconazole; A Cell Wall d. Tiucytosine; A Rnicrotubule

Description : Antifungal drugs, such as_ __, inhibit proper formation of a. Miconazole; A Plasma Membrane b. Griseofulvin; Dna c. Ketoconazole; A Cell Wall d. Tiucytosine; A Rnicrotubule

Last Answer : d. Tiucytosine; A Rnicrotubule

Vancomycin inhibits _____________ synthesis. a. protein b. DNA c. bacterial cell wall d. RNA

Description : Vancomycin inhibits _____________ synthesis. a. protein b. DNA c. bacterial cell wall d. RNA

Last Answer : c. bacterial cell wall

This group of protozoa has a single mitochondrion with a mass of DNA. a. Kinetoplastids b. Ciliates c. Apicomplexans d. Diplomonads

Description : This group of protozoa has a single mitochondrion with a mass of DNA. a. Kinetoplastids b. Ciliates c. Apicomplexans d. Diplomonads

Last Answer : a. Kinetoplastids

Which one of the folLowing statements is NOT true of the influenza viruses? a. They have a segmented genome. b. The genome is double-stranded DNA. c. The viruses have an envelope. d. There are three types of flu viruses

Description : Which one of the folLowing statements is NOT true of the influenza viruses? a. They have a segmented genome. b. The genome is double-stranded DNA. c. The viruses have an envelope. d. There are three types of flu viruses

Last Answer : b. The genome is double-stranded DNA.

The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______. a. DNA; protein b. protein; carbohydrate c. carbohydrate; RNA d. RNA; DNA

Description : The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______. a. DNA; protein b. protein; carbohydrate c. carbohydrate; RNA d. RNA; DNA

Last Answer : d. RNA; DNA

Viroids contain a. RNA and DNA. b. Only RNA. c. DNA and a capsid. d. RNA and an envelope.

Description : Viroids contain a. RNA and DNA. b. Only RNA. c. DNA and a capsid. d. RNA and an envelope.

Last Answer : b. Only RNA.

Viral genomes consist of a. DNA only. b. RNA only. c. DNA or RNA. d. DNA and RNA

Description : Viral genomes consist of a. DNA only. b. RNA only. c. DNA or RNA. d. DNA and RNA

Last Answer : c. DNA or RNA.

A new field of _________ has arisen from sequencing, analyzing and comparing microbial genomes. a. PCR b. DNA probes c. microbial genomics d. microarrays

Description : A new field of _________ has arisen from sequencing, analyzing and comparing microbial genomes. a. PCR b. DNA probes c. microbial genomics d. microarrays

Last Answer : c. microbial genomics

The transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cells is called a. horizontal gene transfer b. vertical gene transfer c. lateral gene transfer d. medial gene transfer

Description : The transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cells is called a. horizontal gene transfer b. vertical gene transfer c. lateral gene transfer d. medial gene transfer

Last Answer : a. horizontal gene transfer

Specialized transduction is carried out by a. Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. b. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome. c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna. d. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

Description : Specialized transduction is carried out by a. Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. b. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome. c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna. d. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

Last Answer : c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna.

Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment. b. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage. c. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene. d. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

Description : Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment. b. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage. c. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene. d. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

Last Answer : a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment.

Without restriction endonucleases, it would be very difficult to a. Force Plasmids into Bacteria. b. Chemically Open Dna Molecules. c. Replicate Dna In A Recombinant Cell. d. Bring About Mutations In Bacteria.

Description : Without restriction endonucleases, it would be very difficult to a. Force Plasmids into Bacteria. b. Chemically Open Dna Molecules. c. Replicate Dna In A Recombinant Cell. d. Bring About Mutations In Bacteria.

Last Answer : b. Chemically Open Dna Molecules.

are single-stranded DNA molecules that can recognize and bind to a distinctive nucLeotide sequence of a pathogen. a. Prophages b. Plasmids c. Cloning vectors d. DNA probes

Description : are single-stranded DNA molecules that can recognize and bind to a distinctive nucLeotide sequence of a pathogen. a. Prophages b. Plasmids c. Cloning vectors d. DNA probes

Last Answer : d. DNA probes

A seals sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments. a. DNA Ligase b. restriction endonuclease c. protease d. RNA polymerase

Description : A seals sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments. a. DNA Ligase b. restriction endonuclease c. protease d. RNA polymerase

Last Answer : b. restriction endonuclease