The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin

The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely
to be attenuated by the concurrent use of:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Propranolol
C. Theophylline
D. Aspirin
by

1 Answer

Answer :

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
by

Related questions

Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. Serum lithium levels are lowered by concurrent administration of NSAIDs D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Description : Choose the correct statement about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): A. NSAIDs attenuate hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas B. NSAIDs potentiate antihypertensive action of ACE inhibitors C. ... D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Last Answer : D. Combined therapy with prednisolone and NSAIDs carries higher risk of gastric bleeding

Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Description : Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates: A. Propranolol B. Fluoxetine C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Sildenafil

Last Answer : D. Sildenafil

Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Description : Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception: A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Cimetidine D. Propranolol

Last Answer : C. Cimetidin

The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma lipid profile: A. Prazosin B. Propranolol C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Furosemide

Last Answer : A. Prazosin

Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Description : Concurrent administration of aspirin interacts unfavourably with the following drugs except: A. Furosemide B. Spironolactone C. Codeine D. Methotrexate

Last Answer : C. Codeine

The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Description : The progastrokinetic action of the following drug(s) is attenuated by atropine: A. Domperidone B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C

Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Description : Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most likely to occur with: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Prazosin C. Clonidine D. Lisinopri

Last Answer : C. Clonidine

A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished and ascitis again appeared. Select the measure to reinduce diuresis: A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose to 100 mg twice daily B. Add acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Description : A patient of liver cirrhosis with ascitis was treated with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg twice daily. He responded initially, but over a couple of months the diuretic action gradually diminished ... Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily D. Substitute hydrochlorothiazide by spironolactone 50 mg 6 hourly

Last Answer : C. Add spironolactone 50 mg thrice daily

Metformin causes little lowering of blood sugar level in: A. Nondiabetics B. Obese diabetics C. Type 2 diabetics D. Diabetics not responding to sulfonylureas

Description : Metformin causes little lowering of blood sugar level in: A. Nondiabetics B. Obese diabetics C. Type 2 diabetics D. Diabetics not responding to sulfonylureas

Last Answer : A. Nondiabetics

Sulfonylureas do not lower blood sugar level in: A. Nondiabetics B. Type 1 diabetics C. Type 2 diabetics D. Obese diabetics

Description : Sulfonylureas do not lower blood sugar level in: A. Nondiabetics B. Type 1 diabetics C. Type 2 diabetics D. Obese diabetics

Last Answer : B. Type 1 diabetics

Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Description : Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver: A. Phenobarbitone B. Propranolol C. Phenylbutazone D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. Propranolol

Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Description : Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina: A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Verapamil D. Dipyridamole

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Description : Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction: A. Propranolol B. Lignocaine C. Procainamide D. Bretylium

Last Answer : A. Propranolol

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline: A. Bronchodilatation B. Lipolysis C. Muscle tremor D. Mydriasis

Description : Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline: A. Bronchodilatation B. Lipolysis C. Muscle tremor D. Mydriasis

Last Answer : D. Mydriasis

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers blood glucose in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Description : Choose the correct statement about nateglinide: A. It is a long acting oral hypoglycaemic drug B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus C. It lowers ... 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus D. It acts by opening K+ channels in myocytes and adipocytes

Last Answer : B. Taken just before a meal, it limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes mellitus

Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Description : Chlorpropamide is not a preferred sulfonylurea because: A. Hypoglycaemic reaction is more common with it B. Incidence of alcohol intolerance reaction is higher with it C. It can produce cholestatic jaundice D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Description : The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemics differ from the first generation ones in that they: A. Are more potent B. Are longer acting C. Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects D. Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemic reaction

Last Answer : A. Are more potent

The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : The monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Description : he monocomponent insulin preparations differ from the conventional preparations in the following respects except: A. They are less allergenic B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions C. They cause less lipodystrophy D. They are less liable to induce insulin resistance

Last Answer : B. They cause less hypoglycaemic reactions

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Description : The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes B. Hyperinsulinemia C. Lactic acidosis D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Last Answer : D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Description : Dorzolamide is a: A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor B. Second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic C. Topical sulfonamide antibacterial D. Luminal amoebicide

Last Answer : A. Topically applied ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Description : What is true of nimesulide: A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition B. It is preferred for long-term use in rheumatoid arthritis C. It is contraindicated in aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. It exerts antiinflammatory action by several mechanisms in addition to cyclooxygenase inhibition

Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Description : Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Last Answer : D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Description : Use of potassium sparing diuretics in patients receiving the following drug needs close monitoring: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Captopril D. Verapami

Last Answer : C. Captopril

The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Description : The following drug reduces urine volume in both pituitary origin as well as renal diabetes insipidus and is orally active: A. Vasopressin B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Chlorpropamide D. Carbamazepine

Last Answer : B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Description : Spironolactone can be usefully combined with the following diuretics except: A. Furosemide B. Amiloride C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Chlorthalidone

Last Answer : B. Amiloride

At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Description : At equinatriuretic doses which diuretic causes the maximum K+ loss: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Acetazolamide D. Amiloride

Last Answer : C. Acetazolamide

The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Description : The following diuretic abolishes the corticomedullary osmotic gradient in the kidney: A. Acetazolamide B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Description : The following antihypertensive combination is irrational, and therefore should not be used: A. Nifedipine + hydralazine B. Amlodipine + atenolol C. Enalapril + clonidine D. Enalapril + hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : TA. Nifedipine + hydralazine

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Description : The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug ... initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but blood sugar level and lipid profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Description : A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, resting heart rate was 96/min, blood pressure 170/104 mm Hg, but ... antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case: A. Nifedipine B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Atenolol D. Methyldopa

Last Answer : C. Atenolol

The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Description : Renal excretion of lithium is reduced by: A. Furosemide B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Indomethacin D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Description : Hyperuricaemia is produced by the following drugs except: A. Ethambutol B. Pyrazinamide C. Sulfinpyrazone D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Last Answer : C. Sulfinpyrazone

Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Description : Choose the correct statement about theophylline: A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin B. Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers C. It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP D. Its plasma halflife is longer in children compared to that in adults

Last Answer : A. Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin

A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Description : A patient of bronchial asthma maintained on theophylline developed upper respiratory tract infection. Which antimicrobial if used can increase the risk of developing theophylline toxicity: A. Ampicillin B. Cephalexin C. Cotrimoxazole D. Erythromycin

Last Answer : D. Erythromycin

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Description : Select the fluoroquinolone which has high oral bioavailability, longer elimination half-life and which does not inhibit metabolism of theophylline: A. Norfloxacin B. Pefloxacin C. Lomefloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin

Last Answer : C. Lomefloxacin

The following drug is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility: A. Cyclandelate B. Theophylline C. Pentoxiphylline D. Nicotinic acid

Description : The following drug is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility: A. Cyclandelate B. Theophylline C. Pentoxiphylline D. Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : C. Pentoxiphylline

The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline

Description : The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor: A. Acetazolamide B. Disulfiram C. Physostigmine D. Theophylline

Last Answer : C. Physostigmine

Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Description : Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child who suffers from exercise induced asthma: A. Oral salbutamol B. Oral theophylline C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate D. Inhaled salmeterol

Last Answer : C. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate

Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Description : Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma concentration in: A. Smokers B. Congestive heart failure patients C. Those receiving erythromycin D. Those receiving cimetidine

Last Answer : A. Smokers

The following antiasthma drug is not a bronchodilator: A. Ipratropium bromide B. Theophylline C. Formoterol D. Sodium cromoglycate

Description : The following antiasthma drug is not a bronchodilator: A. Ipratropium bromide B. Theophylline C. Formoterol D. Sodium cromoglycate

Last Answer : D. Sodium cromoglycate

Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Description : Allopurinol does not inhibit the metabolism of: A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine C. Azathioprine D. Theophylline

Last Answer : B. 6-Thioguanine

Of the following categories of oral antidiabetic agents, which exert their primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin? a) Sulfonylureas Therefore, a functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective.

Description : Of the following categories of oral antidiabetic agents, which exert their primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin? a) Sulfonylureas Therefore, a functioning pancreas is ... of glucose in the intestinal system, resulting in a lower postprandial blood glucose level.

Last Answer : a) Sulfonylureas Therefore, a functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective.