Description : Which prokinetic drug(s) produce(s) extrapyramidal side effects: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Metoclopramide
Description : The following prokinetic drug has been implicated in causing serious ventricular arrhythmias, particularly in patients concurrently receiving erythromycin or ketoconazole: A. Domperidone B. Cisapride C. Mosapride D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Cisapride
Description : Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action: A. Metoclopramide B. Cisapride C. Domperidone D. Ondansetron
Last Answer : C. Domperidone
Description : Select the correct statement regarding the antiemetic efficacy of the three prokinetic drugs metoclopramide, domperidone and cisapride: A. Cisapride is the most effective B. Metoclopramide is the most effective C. Domperidone is the most effective D. All three are equally efficacious
Last Answer : B. Metoclopramide is the most effective
Description : Select the drug(s) which afford(s) relief in gastroesophageal reflux by increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone and promoting gastric emptying, but without affecting acidity of gastric contents: A. Sodium alginate B. Metoclopramide C. Cisapride D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C
Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Description : Select the prokinetic-antiemetic drug which at relatively higher doses blocks both dopamine D2 as well as 5-HT3 receptors and enhances acetylcholine release from myenteric neurones: A. Cisapride B. Prochlorperazine C. Metoclopramide D. Domperidon
Last Answer : C. Metoclopramide
Description : 3 Select the antiemetic that prevents activation of emetogenic afferents in the gut and their central relay in chemoreceptor trigger zone/nucleus tractus solitarious, but has no effect on gastric motility: A. Ondansetron B. Domperidone C. Metoclopramide D. Cisaprid
Last Answer : A. Ondansetron
Description : Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting an enzyme in the body: A. Atropine B. Allopurinol C. Levodopa D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. Allopurinol
Description : The hypoglycaemic action of sulfonylureas is likely to be attenuated by the concurrent use of: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Propranolol C. Theophylline D. Aspirin
Last Answer : A. Hydrochlorothiazide
Description : A patient returning from dinner party meets with road accident and has to be urgently operated upon under general anaesthesia. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to hasten his gastric emptying: A. Methylpolysiloxane B. Promethazine C. Metoclopramide D. Apomorphine
Description : The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin: A. Phenobarbitone B. Metoclopramide C. Quinidine D. Magnesium hydroxide
Last Answer : C. Quinidine
Description : The drug which abolishes the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not that of levodopacarbidopa combination is: A. Metoclopramide B. Pyridoxine C. Chlorpromazine D. Isoniazid
Last Answer : B. Pyridoxine
Description : Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality: A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Last Answer : D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
Description : Metoclopramide blocks apomorphine induced vomiting, produces muscle dystonias and increases prolactin release indicates that it has: A. Anticholinergic action B. Antihistaminic action C. Anti 5-HT3 action D. Antidopaminergic action
Last Answer : D. Antidopaminergic action
Description : The following drug/drugs should not be used to treat tricyclic antidepressant drug poisoning: A. Quinidine B. Digoxin C. Atropine D. All of the above
Last Answer : D. All of the above
Description : The following drug is routinely used in preanaesthetic medication for prolonged operations: A. Atropine B. Morphine C. Promethazine D. Ranitidine
Last Answer : D. Ranitidine
Description : Select the drug that has been used to suppress labour: A. Atropine B. Ritodrine C. Prostaglandin E2 D. Progesterone
Last Answer : B. Ritodrine
Description : A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to: A. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis B. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate C. Block side effects of diphenoxylate D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate
Last Answer : D. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate
Description : Children are more susceptible than adults to the following action of atropine: A. Tachycardia producing B. Cycloplegic C. Gastric antisecretory D. Central excitant and hyperthermic
Last Answer : D. Central excitant and hyperthermic
Description : Tolerance is generally not acquired to: A. Antisecretory action of atropine B. Sedative action of chlorpromazine C. Emetic action of levodopa D. Vasodilator action of nitrates
Last Answer : A. Antisecretory action of atropine
Description : Which racial difference in response to drugs has been mentioned incorrectly below: A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate pupils B. Black races are more responsive ... SMON due to halogenated hydroxyquinolines D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among Indians
Last Answer : B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action of beta blockers
Description : Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action: A. Atropine B. Homatropine C. Tropicamide D. Cyclopentolate
Last Answer : C. Tropicamide
Description : The following is true of clarithromycin except: A. It produces less gastric irritation and pain than erythromycin B. It is the most active macrolide antibiotic against Helicobacter pylori ... terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias D. It exhibits dose dependent elimination kinetics
Last Answer : C. It does not interact with terfenadine or cisapride to cause cardiac arrhythmias
Description : Cisapride enhances gastrointestinal motility by: A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor B. Activating muscarinic M3 receptor C. Blocking dopamine D2 receptor D. All of the above
Last Answer : A. Activating serotonin 5-HT4 receptor
Description : The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist: A. Buspirone B. Sumatriptan C. Cisapride D. Clozapine
Last Answer : C. Cisapride
Description : Cancer chemotherapy induced vomiting that is not controlled by metoclopramide alone can be suppressed by combining it with: A. Amphetamine B. Dexamethasone C. Hyoscine D. Cyclizine
Last Answer : B. Dexamethasone
Description : The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is: A. Prochlorperazine B. Ondansetron C. Metoclopramide D. Promethazine
Last Answer : B. Ondansetron
Description : Activation of the following type of receptors present on myenteric neurones by metoclopramide is primarily responsible for enhanced acetylcholine release improving gastric motility: A. Muscarinic M1 B. Serotonergic 5-HT3 C. Serotonergic 5-HT4 D. Dopaminergic D2
Last Answer : C. Serotonergic 5-HT4
Description : Metoclopramide has the following actions except: A. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter C. Increases gastric peristalsis D. Increases intestinal peristalsis
Last Answer : B. Increases tone of pyloric sphincter
Description : The dopamine D2 receptor has the following feature: A. It is excitatory in nature B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase C. It is selectively blocked by bromocriptine D. It is not blocked by metoclopramide
Last Answer : B. It is negatively coupled to adenyl cyclase
Description : 16.13 Gynaecomastia can be treated with: A. Chlorpromazine B. Cimetidine C. Bromocriptine D. Metoclopramide
Last Answer : C. Bromocriptine
Description : Interaction between the following pair of drugs can be avoided by making suitable adjustments: A. Levodopa and metoclopramide B. Furosemide and indomethacin C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate D. Clonidine and chlorpromazine
Last Answer : C. Tetracyclines and ferrous sulfate
Description : The antitubercular action of thiacetazone has the following feature(s): A. It is a low efficacy antitubercular drug B. It is combined with isoniazid to improve anti-tubercular efficacy of the latter C. ... with isoniazid to prevent development of resistant infection D. Both A' and C' are correc
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Description : Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug (A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol (C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine
Last Answer : ( D ) d-Tubocurarine
Description : Use of morphine in preanaesthetic medication: A. Is routine except in the presence of contraindications B. Is restricted to patients being anaesthetised with ether C. Should be made only in combination with atropine D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperativel
Last Answer : D. Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively
Description : Atropine is contraindicated in: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Digitalis toxicity C. Iridocyclitis D. Raised intraocular tension
Last Answer : D. Raised intraocular tension
Description : Atropine produces the following actions except: A. Tachycardia B. Mydriasis C. Dryness of mouth D. Urinary incontinence
Last Answer : D. Urinary incontinence
Description : Atropine does not exert relaxant/antispasmodic effect on the following muscle: A. Intestinal B. Ureteric C. Bronchial D. Laryngeal
Last Answer : D. Laryngeal
Description : Initial bradycardia caused by intramuscular injection of atropine is believed to be caused by: A. Stimulation of medullary vagal centre B. Stimulation of vagal ganglia C. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings
Last Answer : D. Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings
Description : Atropine does not antagonise the following feature of anticholinesterase poisoning: A. Hypotension B. Central excitation C. Muscle paralysis D. Bronchoconstriction
Last Answer : C. Muscle paralysis
Description : Choose the correct statement about drotaverine: A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms B. It is a papaverine congener used in peripheral vascular diseases C. It ... used to control diarrhoea D. It is a M1/M3 selective antagonist used for spastic constipation
Last Answer : A. It is a smooth muscle antispasmodic acting by non-anticholinergic mechanisms
Description : The mydriatic incapable of producing cycloplegia sufficient for refraction testing in children is: A. Atropine B. Hyoscine C. Homatropine D. Cyclopentolate
Last Answer : C. Homatropine
Description : The most suitable mydriatic for a patient of corneal ulcer is: A. Atropine sulfate B. Homatropine C. Cyclopentolate D. Tropicamide
Last Answer : A. Atropine sulfate
Description : The quarternary analogues of belladonna alkaloids are preferred over the natural alkaloids for antisecretory/ antispasmodic indications because: A. They have additional nicotinic receptor blocking activity B. They are ... of CNS and ocular effects D. Dose to dose they are more potent than atropine
Last Answer : C. They are devoid of CNS and ocular effects
Description : Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it: A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses B. Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye C. Is longer acting D. Has weaker antimotion sickness activity
Last Answer : A. Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses
Description : The organ most sensitive to actions of atropine is: A. Gastric glands B. Salivary glands C. Urinary bladder muscle D. Heart
Last Answer : B. Salivary glands