Visual-evoked response: a. is used primarily to detect visual loss due to retinal disease b. produces biphasic wavefronts c. may give falsely delayed latency if the patient is not concentrating d. produces responses in normal subjects with a latency of 100msec

Visual-evoked response:
a. is used primarily to detect visual loss due to retinal disease
b. produces biphasic wavefronts
c. may give falsely delayed latency if the patient is not concentrating
d. produces responses in normal subjects with a latency of 100msec
by

1 Answer

Answer :

produces responses in normal subjects with a latency of 100msec
by

Related questions

Pattern ERG (PERG): a. tests the function of the ganglion cells b. uses a checkered board pattern that changes in luminance c. gives the same information as visual evoked response (VER) d. is abnormal in glaucoma

Description : Pattern ERG (PERG): a. tests the function of the ganglion cells b. uses a checkered board pattern that changes in luminance c. gives the same information as visual evoked response (VER) d. is abnormal in glaucoma

Last Answer : is abnormal in glaucoma

In a patient with dense cataract and poor retina view, the following tests can be used to test the macular function: a. relative afferent pupillary defect b. laser interferometry c. Haidinger brushes d. Visual evoked potential

Description : In a patient with dense cataract and poor retina view, the following tests can be used to test the macular function: a. relative afferent pupillary defect b. laser interferometry c. Haidinger brushes d. Visual evoked potential

Last Answer : Visual evoked potential

The following cells contribute the wavefronts of the flash ERG: a. retinal pigment epithelium b. corneal endothelium c. photoreceptors d. ganglion cell

Description : The following cells contribute the wavefronts of the flash ERG: a. retinal pigment epithelium b. corneal endothelium c. photoreceptors d. ganglion cell

Last Answer : photoreceptors

Consider the assertions given below. Which among them prove to be beneficial for Persistent HTTP connections? A. Reduction in latency over the sub- sequent requests B. Pipeline-oriented connection over the requests and responses C. Increase in number of packets due to TCP opens D. Prevention in opening and closing of some TCP connections a. A & B b. C & D c. A & C d. B & B

Description : Consider the assertions given below. Which among them prove to be beneficial for Persistent HTTP connections? A. Reduction in latency over the sub- sequent requests B. Pipeline-oriented connection over the requests and responses C. Increase ... TCP connections a. A & B b. C & D c. A & C d. B & B

Last Answer : a. A & B

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

The ordinary examination of financial statements is not primarily designed to disclose defalcations and other irregularities although their discovery may result. Normal audit procedures are more likely to detect a fraud arising from a. Theft of inventories. b. Collusion on the part of several employees. c. Failure to record cash receipts for services rendered. d. Forgeries on company checks

Description : The ordinary examination of financial statements is not primarily designed to disclose defalcations and other irregularities although their discovery may result. Normal audit procedures are more likely to ... . Failure to record cash receipts for services rendered. d. Forgeries on company checks

Last Answer : Theft of inventories

The ordinary examination of financial statements is not primarily designed to disclose defalcations and other irregularities although their discovery may result. Normal audit procedures are more likely to detect a fraud arising from a. Collusion on the part of several employees. b. Failure to record cash receipts for services rendered. c. Forgeries on company checks. d. Theft of inventories

Description : The ordinary examination of financial statements is not primarily designed to disclose defalcations and other irregularities although their discovery may result. Normal audit procedures are more likely to ... receipts for services rendered. c. Forgeries on company checks. d. Theft of inventories

Last Answer : Theft of inventories

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

True statement about dark adaptation include: a. the threshold for light intensity falls b. it is biphasic c. the initial adaptation is due to rod adaptation d. the change in the light intensity threshold is usually around 100 folds

Description : True statement about dark adaptation include: a. the threshold for light intensity falls b. it is biphasic c. the initial adaptation is due to rod adaptation d. the change in the light intensity threshold is usually around 100 folds

Last Answer : the threshold for light intensity falls

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion

Description : A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is: a. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion b. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

I'm a very visual person. Any tips for concentrating on what I hear and not getting distracted by what I see?

Description : I'm a very visual person. Any tips for concentrating on what I hear and not getting distracted by what I see?

Last Answer : answer:Taking notes will help. You have to kook down at the peper or the screen and it will keep you from getting visually distracted. When listening to someone, you could close your eyes. Don’t owrry about audio books. I can’t ever get into them either.

Which of the following responses identifies a role of T lymphocytes? a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

Description : Which of the following responses identifies a role of T lymphocytes? a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells. ... ) Bacterial phagocytosis and lysis Bacterial phagocytosis and lysis are humoral response roles of Blymphocytes.

Last Answer : a) Transplant rejection Transplant rejection and graft-versus-host disease are cellular response roles of T cells.

Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to ... B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for nvCJD.

Last Answer : a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

“Each point on a spherical wavefront may be considered a source of secondary spherical wavefronts”. This is known as the A. Snell’s law B. D’Alembert’s principle C. Appleton’s theory D. Huygen’s principle

Description : “Each point on a spherical wavefront may be considered a source of secondary spherical wavefronts”. This is known as the A. Snell’s law B. D’Alembert’s principle C. Appleton’s theory D. Huygen’s principle

Last Answer : D. Huygen’s principle

.Diffractionof electromagneticwaves a. is caused by reflections from the ground b. arises only with spherical wavefronts c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot d.may occuraroundthe edge of asharpobstacle

Description : .Diffractionof electromagneticwaves a. is caused by reflections from the ground b. arises only with spherical wavefronts c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot d.may occuraroundthe edge of asharpobstacle

Last Answer : d.may occuraroundthe edge of asharpobstacle

A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Description : A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Last Answer : C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment

Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Chronic heart failure (d) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor (e) All of the above

Description : Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Chronic heart failure (d) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: B

The cells of the retinal pigment epithelium: a. are of mesenchymal origin b. are shorter at the fovea than else where in the retina c. have intracellular melanosomes d. regenerate visual pigment e. form the inner outer blood-retina barrier

Description : The cells of the retinal pigment epithelium: a. are of mesenchymal origin b. are shorter at the fovea than else where in the retina c. have intracellular melanosomes d. regenerate visual pigment e. form the inner outer blood-retina barrier

Last Answer : have intracellular melanosome

Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments. (b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments. (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C. (d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

Description : Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments. (b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three ... a derivative of vitamin C. (d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

Last Answer : (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.

Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. (1) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene. (2) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment. (3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A. (4) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments. (a) (1), (3) and (4) (b) (1) and (3) (c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1) and (2)

Description : Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. (1) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene. (2) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner ... (1) and (3) (c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1) and (2)

Last Answer : (b) (1) and (3)

Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food : Select the best option from the following statements : (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene (b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment (c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments Options : (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)

Description : Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food : Select the best option from the following statements : (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene (b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment ... (a) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)

Last Answer : (1) (a), (c) and (d)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels

Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics

The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and obtain its contents is called_____. A. Latency time. B. Access time. C. Turnaround time. D. Response time.

Description : The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and obtain its contents is called_____. A. Latency time. B. Access time. C. Turnaround time. D. Response time.

Last Answer : B. Access time.

Which statement is true about a cloud computing environment? A. It cannot be used to host location based applications. B. It enables users to access systems regardless of their location. C. It introduces latency as the servers are geographically dispersed. D. It can improve a web server response time by having servers closer to the end user.

Description : Which statement is true about a cloud computing environment? A. It cannot be used to host location based applications. B. It enables users to access systems regardless of their location. C. It introduces ... D. It can improve a web server response time by having servers closer to the end user.

Last Answer : It enables users to access systems regardless of their location.

True statement about dark adaptation include: a. there is a shift in peak spectral sensitivity from 555 nm to 505 nm with dark adaptation b. rods are more sensitive than cone during dark adaptation c. biphasic changes only occur in retina which processes both rods and cones d. all above

Description : True statement about dark adaptation include: a. there is a shift in peak spectral sensitivity from 555 nm to 505 nm with dark adaptation b. rods are more sensitive than cone during dark adaptation c. biphasic changes only occur in retina which processes both rods and cones d. all above

Last Answer : all above

True statements about saccadic eye movements include: a. only occur when the patient is awake b. the velocity is under voluntary control c. the maximum velocity is 700 degrees / second d. it has a latency of 250msec

Description : True statements about saccadic eye movements include: a. only occur when the patient is awake b. the velocity is under voluntary control c. the maximum velocity is 700 degrees / second d. it has a latency of 250msec

Last Answer : the maximum velocity is 700 degrees / second

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis  

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to (a) passive immune response (b) innate immune response (c) humoral immune response (d) cell-mediated immune response.

Description : Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to (a) passive immune response (b) innate immune response (c) humoral immune response (d) cell-mediated immune response.

Last Answer : (d) cell-mediated immune response.

(Visual) In 1971, a king used this artifact as symbol during the celebration of what he called the 2,500th anniversary of the monarchy in his country. He also offered a copy to the UN and claimed that it was the world’s first human rights charter. Historians tend to disagree and believe that it contains no more than the polite formulae by which rulers begin talking to newly acquired subjects. What artifact?

Description : (Visual) In 1971, a king used this artifact as symbol during the celebration of what he called the 2,500th anniversary of the monarchy in his country. He also offered a copy to the UN ... no more than the polite formulae by which rulers begin talking to newly acquired subjects. What artifact?

Last Answer : The Cyrus Cylinder (from Iran).

The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Description : The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Last Answer : C. Visual hallucination

The following are true about electroretinogram: a. the a-wave is produced by the photoreceptors b. the b-wave is produced by the ganglion cells c. c-wave is produced by the retinal pigment epithelium d. different light frequencies can be used to separate rod and cone response

Description : The following are true about electroretinogram: a. the a-wave is produced by the photoreceptors b. the b-wave is produced by the ganglion cells c. c-wave is produced by the retinal pigment epithelium d. different light frequencies can be used to separate rod and cone response

Last Answer : the a-wave is produced by the photoreceptors

The retinal pigment epithelium (RPE): a. is sensitive to hypervitaminosis A b. isomerizes all-trans-retinal to 11-cis-retinol c. does not undergo mitosis in response to injury d. secrets the outer layer of the basal lamina that forms the Bruch's membrane.

Description : The retinal pigment epithelium (RPE): a. is sensitive to hypervitaminosis A b. isomerizes all-trans-retinal to 11-cis-retinol c. does not undergo mitosis in response to injury d. secrets the outer layer of the basal lamina that forms the Bruch's membrane.

Last Answer : isomerizes all-trans-retinal to 11-cis-retinol

Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Description :  Aspirin is contraindicated in pregnant women near term because: A. Labour may be delayed and prolonged B. Blood loss during delivery may be more C. Foetus may suffer premature closure of ductus arteriosus D. All of the above risks

Last Answer : D. All of the above risks

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion

Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Used as a remission inducing agent in rheumatoid arthritis, hydroxychloroquine: A. Is more effective than chloroquine B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine C. Is more effective and more toxic than gold D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : B. Produces a lower incidence of retinal damage than chloroquine

Periodic testing by a shoreside support technician using a special camera which can detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections is termed ______________. A. heat sensitive thermography B. visual pyrotronics C. corrosion electrolysis D. electric vibroanalysis

Description : Periodic testing by a shoreside support technician using a special camera which can detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded bus bar and controller connections is termed ______________. A. heat sensitive thermography B. visual pyrotronics C. corrosion electrolysis D. electric vibroanalysis

Last Answer : Answer: A

With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight subsurface defects up to 2mm below the surface a) Visual b) Dye Penetrant c) Magnetic Particle using DC d) Magnetic particle using AC

Description : With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight subsurface defects up to 2mm below the surface a) Visual b) Dye Penetrant c) Magnetic Particle using DC d) Magnetic particle using AC

Last Answer : c) Magnetic Particle using DC

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

Description : Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the ... host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the systemic circulation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? (a) Cell-mediated immune response (b) Auto-immune response (c) Humoral immune response (d) Inflammatory immune response

Description : Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? (a) Cell-mediated immune response (b) Auto-immune response (c) Humoral immune response (d) Inflammatory immune response

Last Answer : (a) Cell-mediated immune response

Second messengers a. are substances that interact with first messengers inside cells b. are substances that bind to first messengers in the cell membrane c. are hormones secreted by cells in response to stimulation by another hormone d. mediate the intracellular responses to many different hormonesand neurotransmitters e. are not formed in the brain

Description : Second messengers a. are substances that interact with first messengers inside cells b. are substances that bind to first messengers in the cell membrane c. are hormones secreted by cells ... the intracellular responses to many different hormonesand neurotransmitters e. are not formed in the brain

Last Answer : mediate the intracellular responses to many different hormonesand neurotransmitters

Identify A, B and C in the diagramatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action. B A Response 1 C Physiological Responses Select the correct option from the following. (a) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Hormone-receptor Complex; C-Protein (b) A-Protein Hormone; B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP (c) A-Steroid Hormone; B-Receptor; C - Second Messenger (d) A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP; C-Hormone-receptor Complex

Description : Identify A, B and C in the diagramatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action. B A Response 1 C Physiological Responses Select the correct option from the following. (a) A-Steroid Hormone; B- ... ; C - Second Messenger (d) A-Protein Hormone; B-Cyclic AMP; C-Hormone-receptor Complex

Last Answer : (b) A-Protein Hormone; B-Receptor; C-Cyclic AMP