The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to morphine is/are: A. High oral bioavailability B. High plasma protein and tissue binding C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in dependent subjects D. All of the above

The distinctive feature(s) of methadone compared to
morphine is/are:
A. High oral bioavailability
B. High plasma protein and tissue binding
C. Delayed and milder withdrawal symptoms in
dependent subjects
D. All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. All of the above
by

Related questions

Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage of lipid soluble drugs into the brain C. It limits entry of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Description : Which of the following is not true of the blood-brain barrier: A. It is constituted by tight junctions between the endothelial cells of brain capillaries and the glial tissue B. It allows passage ... of highly ionized drugs into the brain D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Last Answer : D. It regulates passage of substances from brain into blood

Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to: A. Antagonise the actions of nalorphine B. Antagonise the actions of pentazocine C. Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Last Answer : D. Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearance

Lower dose of naloxone is required to (a) Antagonise the actions of nalorphine (b) Antagonise the actions of pentazocine (c) Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects (d) Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Description : Lower dose of naloxone is required to (a) Antagonise the actions of nalorphine (b) Antagonise the actions of pentazocine (c) Precipitate withdrawal in mildly morphine dependent subjects (d) Precipitate withdrawal in highly morphine dependent subjects

Last Answer : Ans: D

X L and X C in Series

Description : X L and X C in Series

Last Answer : Inductive reactance X L and Capacitive reactance X C in series. Inductive reactance X L of value 60 ohm and Capacitive reactance X C of value 40 ohm are connected in series. 120 volts A C voltage is ... . The current will be 6 ampere. This time current will lead the voltage by 90 degree.

he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood–CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Description : he dominant pharmacokinetic feature of penicillin G is: A. It is equally distributed extra- and intracellularly B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules C. It has low oral bioavailability ... pass metabolism in liver D. It does not cross blood-CSF barrier even when meninges are inflamed

Last Answer : B. It is rapidly secreted by proximal renal tubules

Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Description : Choose the correct statement about pentazocine: A. It causes bradycardia and fall in blood pressure B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses C. It induces vomiting frequently D. It substitutes for morphine in dependent subjects

Last Answer : B. Its subjective effects are pleasurable at low doses but turn unpleasant at high doses

Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral bioavailability C. It is the longest acting and the safest glycoside D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Description : Among all cardiac glycosides, digoxin is the most commonly used, because: A. It is the most potent and fastest acting glycoside B. It has the highest and most consistent oral ... so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

Last Answer : D. It has intermediate plasma half life so that dose adjustments are possible every 2-3 days and toxicity abates rather rapidly after discontinuatio

The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Description : The subjective effects of morphine include the following except: A. Dysphoria in many uninitiated individuals B. Euphoria in dependent subjects C. Visual hallucinations D. Detachment to self and surrounding

Last Answer : C. Visual hallucination

The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of secnidazole is: A. It is not absorbed after oral ingestion B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis C. It is effective in intestinal but not in hepatic amoebiasis D. It is effective in both trichomonas as well as monilial vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It is recommended for single dose treatment of intestinal amoebiasis

The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Description : The distinctive feature(s) of sparfloxacin compared to ciprofloxacin is/are: A. Enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria B. Lack of pharmacokinetic interaction with theophylline and warfarin C. Higher incidence of phototoxic reaction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

08. What does the term “bioavailability” mean? a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Description : 08. What does the term bioavailability mean? a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic ... following any route administration d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Last Answer : C

If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Description : If a drug has a constant bioavailability and first order elimination, its maintenance dose rate will be directly proportional to its: A. Volume of distribution B. Plasma protein binding C. Lipid solubility D. Total body clearance

Last Answer : D. Total body clearanc

The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Description : The distinctive feature of nimesulide is: A. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis B. It does not cause gastric irritation C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients D. It is not bound to plasma proteins

Last Answer : C. It is usually well tolerated by aspirin intolerant asthma patients

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine: A. Generation of an active metabolite B. Large volume of distribution C. High and consistent oral bioavailability D. Long elimination half life

Last Answer : A. Generation of an active metabolit

15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Description : 15.45 To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have: A. High oral bioavailability B. Low oral bioavailability C. Additional bronchodilator activity

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Description : Agonist induced autophosphorylation, internalization and down regulation is a distinctive feature of: A. G-protein coupled receptors B. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptors C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors D. Receptors regulating gene expression

Last Answer : C. Tyrosine protein kinase receptors

Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Description : Limitations of typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. Narrow safety margin B. Low oral bioavailability C. Frequent side effects D. Long latent period for response

Last Answer : B. Low oral bioavailability

The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Description : Which of the following is not a primary/fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter: A. Bioavailability B. Volume of distribution C. Clearance D. Plasma half life

Last Answer : D. Plasma half life

5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination of its action: A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Description : 5 A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for 10 min. Which process is responsible for termination ... : A. Metabolism in liver B. Plasma protein binding C. Excretion by kidney D. Redistribution

Last Answer : D. Redistribution

Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Description : Use of sublingual/oral nifedipine soft geletine capsule for rapid BP lowering in hypertensive urgency has been discarded because of: A. Delayed onset of action B. Inability to control the rate and extent of fall in BP C. Reports of adverse/fatal outcome D. Both 'B' and 'C'

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C'

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Description : The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution: A. High lipid solubility B. Low ionisation at physiological pH values C. High plasma protein binding D. High tissue binding

Last Answer : C. High plasma protein binding

Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Description : Pentazocine differs from morphine in that: A. It is inactive by the oral route B. It does not produce physical dependence C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effect D. Its action is not blocked by naloxone

Last Answer : C. It has a lower ceiling of analgesic effec

Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Description : Choose the correct statement about codeine: A. It has a lower oral: parenteral activity ratio than morphine B. It is devoid of abuse liability C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine D. It is a more potent antitussive than morphine

Last Answer : C. It is a weaker analgesic than morphine

The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Description : The following is not true of morphine: A. Its 2-glucuronide metabolite is an active analgesic B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine C. Its oral: parenteral activity ratio is 1:4 D. It undergoes enterohepatic cycling

Last Answer : B. Its active metabolite penetrates blood-brain barrier better than morphine

The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Description : The distinctive feature of terbinafine is: A. It is highly effective in histoplasmosis B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis C. It inhibits Mucor and Aspergillus as well D. Applied intravaginally it cures both candida as well as trichomonas vaginitis

Last Answer : B. It can be used topically as well as orally for dermatophytosis

The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Description : The distinctive feature of the isoenzyme cyclooxygenase-2 is: A. It is not inhibited by indomethacin B. It is inducible C. It generates cytoprotective prostagladins in gastric mucosa D. It is found only in foetal tissues

Last Answer : B. It is inducible

Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Description : Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of: A. Pimozide B. Haloperidol C. Ketanserin D. Clozapine

Last Answer : D. Clozapine

The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently produces sedative and anticholinergic side effects C. It can elevate mood of apparently nondepressed patients suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Description : The distinctive features of fluoxetine compared to the typical tricyclic antidepressants include the following except: A. It is less likely to produce cardiac arrhythmias in overdose B. It infrequently ... suffering from chronic somatic illness D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration C. Long terminal elimination half-life D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Description : The distinctive features of azithromycin include the following except: A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin B. Marked tissue distribution and intracellular penetration ... D. Low propensity to drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

Last Answer : A. Efficacy against organisms which have developed resistance to erythromycin

The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia

Description : The newer lipid formulations of amphotericin B differ from the conventional formulation in the following respects except: A. They are more efficacious B. They produce milder acute reaction C. They are less nephrotoxic D. They produce milder anaemia

Last Answer : A. They are more efficacious

Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Description : Ropinirole differs from bromocriptine in the following respect: A. It does not directly activate dopamine D2 receptors B. It produces milder gastrointestinal side effects C. In early cases of parkinsonism, it is less likely to need levodopa supplementation D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

Which of the following narcotics has the longest duration of effect? (a) Methadone (b) Controlled-release morphine (c) Levorphanol (d) Transdermal fentanyl (e) Dihydromorphone

Description : Which of the following narcotics has the longest duration of effect? (a) Methadone (b) Controlled-release morphine (c) Levorphanol (d) Transdermal fentanyl (e) Dihydromorphone

Last Answer : Ans: D

Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Description : Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by: A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase B. Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis C. Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria D. Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria

Last Answer : A. Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Description : The following statement about histamine is not correct: A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

Last Answer : A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction

The psychotic symptoms most benefited by neuroleptic drugs are: A. Judgement and memory impairment B. Loss of insight and volition C. Hallucinations, delusions and aggressive behaviour D. Apathy and social withdrawal

Description : The psychotic symptoms most benefited by neuroleptic drugs are: A. Judgement and memory impairment B. Loss of insight and volition C. Hallucinations, delusions and aggressive behaviour D. Apathy and social withdrawal

Last Answer : C. Hallucinations, delusions and aggressive behaviour

Why vascular tissue is considered a distinctive feature responsible for survival of plants in terrestrial plants?

Description : Why vascular tissue is considered a distinctive feature responsible for survival of plants in terrestrial plants?

Last Answer : Fossils of plants show that vascular tissue appear 400 million years ago. It is believed that aquatic plants moved to terrestrial environment and adaptations like vascular tissue, protected seeds, true roots ... root, stem and leaves. It also enable plant to grow upright i.e. become taller.

Select the opioid analgesic which acts primarily through κ (kappa) opioid receptor: A. Pentazocine B. Methadone C. Buprenorphine D. Pethidine

Description : Select the opioid analgesic which acts primarily through κ (kappa) opioid receptor: A. Pentazocine B. Methadone C. Buprenorphine D. Pethidine

Last Answer : A. Pentazocine

The following opioid analgesic is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating: A. Methadone B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Dextropropoxyphene

Description : The following opioid analgesic is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating: A. Methadone B. Buprenorphine C. Butorphanol D. Dextropropoxyphene

Last Answer : D. Dextropropoxyphene

The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Description : The following drug is not likely to produce dependence: A. Diazepam B. Chlorpromazine C. Pethidine D. Methadone

Last Answer : B. Chlorpromazine

Select the drug that has been found to reduce alcohol craving and chances of resumed heavy drinking by alcoholics after they have undergone a detoxification programme: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Chlorpromazine C. Methadone D. Naltrexone

Description : Select the drug that has been found to reduce alcohol craving and chances of resumed heavy drinking by alcoholics after they have undergone a detoxification programme: A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Chlorpromazine C. Methadone D. Naltrexone

Last Answer : D. Naltrexone

To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Low oral bioavailability (c) Additional bronchodilator activity (d) Prodrug character

Description : To be a useful inhaled glucocorticoid the drug should have (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Low oral bioavailability (c) Additional bronchodilator activity (d) Prodrug character

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Last Answer : Ans: C

Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver: A. Have low oral bioavailability B. Are excreted primarily in bile C. Are contraindicated in liver disease D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination

Description : Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver: A. Have low oral bioavailability B. Are excreted primarily in bile C. Are contraindicated in liver disease D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination

Last Answer : A. Have low oral bioavailability

The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Description : The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has: A. High oral bioavailability B. Better CNS penetrability C. Weaker oxytocic action D. Strong anti-5-HT action

Last Answer : A. High oral bioavailability