A transudate differs from an exudate primarily in its C A. Interstitial volume B. Presence of vasoactive mediators C. Protein content D. None of these

A transudate differs from an exudate primarily in its
C
A. Interstitial volume
B. Presence of vasoactive mediators
C. Protein content
D. None of these
by

1 Answer

Answer :

Protein content
by

Related questions

Which of the following statements about extracellular fluid are true? A. The total extracellular fluid volume represents 40% of the body weight. B. The plasma volume constitutes one fourth of the total extracellular fluid volume. C. Potassium is the principal cation in extracellular fluid. D. The protein content of the plasma produces a lower concentration of cations than in the interstitial fluid. E. The interstitial fluid equilibrates slowly with the other body compartments.

Description : Which of the following statements about extracellular fluid are true? A. The total extracellular fluid volume represents 40% of the body weight. B. The plasma volume constitutes one fourth ... the interstitial fluid. E. The interstitial fluid equilibrates slowly with the other body compartments.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The total extracellular fluid volume represents 20% of body weight. The plasma volume is approximately 5% of body weight. Sodium is the principal cation. The ... fluid and cerebrospinal fluid, the majority of the interstitial fluid exists as a rapidly equilibrating component

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Description : The following kinin action is mediated primarily by the kinin B1 receptor: A. Intestinal contraction B. Bronchoconstriction C. EDRF release and vasodilatation D. Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Last Answer : . Production of Interleukin, TNFα and other inflammatory mediators

Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension. b) Dopamine (Intropin) Dopamine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. c) Epinephrine (adrenaline) Epinephrine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Description : Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage ... increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Last Answer : a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension.

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Description : Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C ... in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. Bacteria, protein exudate, and necrotic tissue all will compromise this process b. Epithelial cells exhibit contact proliferation c. Epithelialization occurs only from the margins of the wound d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Description : Reconstitution of the epithelial barrier (epithelialization) begins within hours of the initial injury. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the process of epithelialization? a. ... d. Visible scarring can occur only when the injury extends deeper than the superficial dermis

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The initial step of epithelialization involves epithelial cells from the basal layer of the wound edge flattening and migrating across the wound, completing wound coverage within 24- ... abrasions and burns may scar significantly. Whenever the dermis is incised, a scar will form

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the clinical management of an open wound? a. A wet-to-dry dressing is the most optimal form of wound management b. A moist occlusive dressing promotes epithelialization and reduces pain c. The protein rich plasma exudate covering the open wound facilitates healing d. Irrigation of the wound disrupts epithelialization therefore inhibiting the healing process

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the clinical management of an open wound? a. A wet-to-dry dressing is the most optimal form of wound management ... wound facilitates healing d. Irrigation of the wound disrupts epithelialization therefore inhibiting the healing process

Last Answer : Answer: b Epithelialization is more rapid under moist conditions than dry conditions. Without dressings, a superficial wound, or one with minimal devitalized tissue forms a scab or ... dysfunction, increases the distance for diffusion from oxygen and nutrient sources to their metabolic targets

Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. Adherence to and coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Description : Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. ... coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Platelets are anucleated cells derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their central role in hemostasis is well known. Platelets possess a wide ... primitive precursor inflammatory cell. Platelets serve primarily as an amplifier or modulator of the inflammatory response

The β3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Description : The β3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Last Answer : A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol

The β 3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Description : The β 3 adrenoceptor differs from the other subtypes of β receptor in that it: A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol B. Is located primarily in the heart C. Regulates blood sugar level D. Is not coupled to G proteins

Last Answer : A. Is not blocked by the conventional doses of propranolol

All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic agent, should be given immediately for resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock, to increase cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to hypoperfused tissues. C. The use of colloid solutions or hypertonic saline solutions is contraindicated for treatment of hemorrhagic shock. D. In hemorrhagic shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Description : All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic ... shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Hemorrhagic shock is associated with a contraction of the interstitial fluid compartment because of precapillary vasoconstriction and reabsorption of interstitial fluid ... definitive evidence that such solutions are better than standard crystalloid solutions is lacking

Deuterium oxide and inulin are injected into a normal 30-year-old man. The volume of distribution of deuterium oxide is found to be 42 L and that of inulin 14 L. a. The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 14 L. b. The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 28 L. c. The man’s plasma volume is about 7 L. d. The man’s interstitial fluid volume is about 9 L. e. The man’s total body water cannot be calculated from these data

Description : Deuterium oxide and inulin are injected into a normal 30-year-old man. The volume of distribution of deuterium oxide is found to be 42 L and that of inulin 14 L. a. The man's intracellular fluid ... fluid volume is about 9 L. e. The man's total body water cannot be calculated from these data

Last Answer : The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 28 L.

Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Triamterene differs from spironolactone in that: A. It has greater natriuretic action B. Its K+ retaining action is not dependent on presence of aldosterone C. It acts from the luminal membrane side of the distal tubular cells D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Exudate?

Description : Exudate?

Last Answer : DefinitionExudate is fluid, such as pus or cleak fluid, that leaks out of blood vessels into nearby tissues. The fluid is made of cells, proteins, and solid materials. Exudate may ooze from cuts or from areas of infection or inflammation.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can ... may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, ... the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity

Dried exudate on the surface of the skin. A. Plaque B. Crust C. Scale

Description : Dried exudate on the surface of the skin. A. Plaque B. Crust C. Scale

Last Answer : Ans: B

Hashish is obtained from aplant. From which part of the plant is it obtained? (1) Leaves (2) Stem (3) Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences. (4) Exudate from stem and male inflorescences.

Description : Hashish is obtained from aplant. From which part of the plant is it obtained? (1) Leaves (2) Stem (3) Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences. (4) Exudate from stem and male inflorescences.

Last Answer : (3) Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences. Explanation: Hashish, often known as "hash", is a cannabis preparation composed of compressed and/or purified preparations of stalked ... strains of cannabis are cultivated specifically for their ability to produce large amounts of trichornes.

As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics ... and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccal mucosa. The lesion is painless, ulcerated, has indurated margins, 1.5 cm in diameter, covered by greyish-white exudate, enlarged lymph nodes and tender, negative tuberculin test and positive serology. The diagnosis is

Description : A patient is complaining of an open sore on the buccal mucosa. The lesion is painless, ulcerated, has  indurated margins, 1.5 cm in diameter, covered by greyish-white exudate, enlarged lymph nodes  and tender, negative tuberculin test and positive serology. The diagnosis is

Last Answer : Chancre /Primary lesion of syphilis 

As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic ... diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the centre of the tongue C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue

Description : Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the ... (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue

Last Answer : C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas

Hashish is obtained from a plant. From which part of the plant is it obtained ? (1) Leaves (2) Stem (3) Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences. (4) Exudate from stem and male inflorescences.

Description : Hashish is obtained from a plant. From which part of the plant is it obtained ? (1) Leaves (2) Stem (3) Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences. (4) Exudate from stem and male inflorescences.

Last Answer : Exudate from leaves and female inflorescences.

Heart of frog differs from that of man by presence of or Heart of rat differs from that of frog by the absence of

Description : Heart of frog differs from that of man by presence of or Heart of rat differs from that of frog by the absence of

Last Answer : Heart of frog differs from that of man by presence of or Heart of rat differs from that of frog by ... B. Four chambers C. Mitral valve D. Two aorta

Heartwood differs from sapwood in (a) presence of rays and fibres (b) absence of vessels and parenchyma (c) having dead and non-conducting elements (d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens.

Description : Heartwood differs from sapwood in (a) presence of rays and fibres (b) absence of vessels and parenchyma (c) having dead and non-conducting elements (d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens.

Last Answer : (c) having dead and non-conducting elements

Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in (a) absence of scolex hooks (b) absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching (c) absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs (d) presence of scolex hooks.

Description : Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in (a) absence of scolex hooks (b) absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching (c) absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs (d) presence of scolex hooks.

Last Answer : (a) absence of scolex hooks

With regard to the vitreous: a. its water content is about 90% b. its volume is about 5ml in each eye c. its viscosity increases with age d. its viscosity is contributed by the presence of sodium hyaluronate

Description : With regard to the vitreous: a. its water content is about 90% b. its volume is about 5ml in each eye c. its viscosity increases with age d. its viscosity is contributed by the presence of sodium hyaluronate

Last Answer : its viscosity is contributed by the presence of sodium hyaluronate

Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

Description : Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the ... host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the systemic circulation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a detrimental response to injury with normal body processes working to avoid this process c. Vascular permeability is maintained to prevent further cellular injury d. Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the vascular response to injury? a. Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury b. Vasodilatation is a ... Histamine, prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) are important mediators of local vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: a After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once ... and mast cells and enhance the egress of cells and substrate into the wound and tissue

Cell regulation can be thought of as the effector side of cell communication. Most commonly cell regulation occurs by means of extracellular chemical messengers. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning these messengers? a. Paracrine regulation involves a messenger which is produced and acts systemically b. The extracellular signal or stimulus is received by a receptor on or in the target cell c. Neurocrine regulation depends on a physical connection between the neuron and the target cell d. Most hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters readily cross the cell plasma membrane

Description : Cell regulation can be thought of as the effector side of cell communication. Most commonly cell regulation occurs by means of extracellular chemical messengers. Which of the following statement(s ... d. Most hormones, local mediators, and neurotransmitters readily cross the cell plasma membrane

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Depending on how the extracellular messenger arrives, cell regulation can be classified as paracrine, endocrine, or neurocrine. In paracrine regulation, a chemical messenger ... , local mediators, and neurotransmitters are water-soluble and cannot readily cross the plasma membrane

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) Inceased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Description : The symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) ... bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cell (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Last Answer : Ans: A

The Symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) Increased vascular permeability of bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cells (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Description : The Symptoms of allergen-mediated asthma result from which of the following? (a) Increased release of mediators from mast cells (b) Increased adrenergic responsiveness of the airways (c) ... bronchial tissue (d) Decreased calcium influx into the mast cells (e) Decreased prostaglandin production

Last Answer : Ans: A

Following mediators are involved in acute inflammation except (a) Histamine (b) Leukotrienes (c) Interferons (d) Bradykinin

Description : Following mediators are involved in acute inflammation except (a) Histamine (b) Leukotrienes (c) Interferons (d) Bradykinin

Last Answer : Ans: C

What are secondary mediators ?

Description : What are secondary mediators ?

Last Answer : Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.

What are primary mediators ?

Description : What are primary mediators ?

Last Answer : Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.

Immunoglobulins serving as mediators in allergic response are

Description : 14.Immunoglobulins serving as mediators in a(a)IgE (b)IgD (c)IgM (d)IgAllergic response are

Last Answer : ANS.(A) IgE

Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Description : Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Last Answer : B. Haptenes

Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Description : Drugs producing allergic reactions generally act as: A. Complete antigens B. Haptenes C. Antibodies D. Mediators

Last Answer : B. Haptenes

The basic structure of cell membranes (a) Is a lipid bilayer that serves as a barrier to water soluble molecules (b) Differs ultra structurally for internal and external membranes of cell (c) Is best described as lipids dispersed within a protein bilayer (d) Is visualised as bilaminar structure with transmission electron microscopy

Description : The basic structure of cell membranes (a) Is a lipid bilayer that serves as a barrier to water soluble molecules (b) Differs ultra structurally for internal and external membranes ... dispersed within a protein bilayer (d) Is visualised as bilaminar structure with transmission electron microscopy

Last Answer : Ans:(a)

Hydroxocobalamin differs from cyanocobalamin in that: A. It is more protein bound and better retained B. It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia C. It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of vit B12 deficiency D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Hydroxocobalamin differs from cyanocobalamin in that: A. It is more protein bound and better retained B. It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia C. It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of vit B12 deficiency D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of vit B12 deficiency

The following are true about the tear film: a. the normal volume is about 20 ul b. its main protein content is made up of immunoglobulins c. the lysozyme concentration is the greatest d. the concentration of Ig A is greater than that of Ig G

Description : The following are true about the tear film: a. the normal volume is about 20 ul b. its main protein content is made up of immunoglobulins c. the lysozyme concentration is the greatest d. the concentration of Ig A is greater than that of Ig G

Last Answer : the lysozyme concentration is the greatest

"Hard" water is related to the presence of high concentrations of primarily four metal ions in water supplies. Calcium and magnesium ions are the most common of the four. Name one of the other two ions.

Description : "Hard" water is related to the presence of high concentrations of primarily four metal ions in water supplies. Calcium and magnesium ions are the most common of the four. Name one of the other two ions. 

Last Answer : ANSWER: IRON AND MANGANESE

What is the function of interstitial cells? -Biology

Description : What is the function of interstitial cells? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

What is the function of interstitial cells? -Biology

Description : What is the function of interstitial cells? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

What is interstitial zone , how many types and what are they ?

Description : What is interstitial zone , how many types and what are they ?

Last Answer : The area from the pericycle layer to the center of the root or stem without the transport tissue cluster is called interstitial region. It is divided into three parts 1. Medulla II. Circle 3. Marrow ray

What is an interstitial cell ?

Description : What is an interstitial cell ?

Last Answer : Interstitial cells are cells that are located in the clusters , clusters , and adjacent to the mesaglia . They consist of galactic or triangular , with a diameter of micrometer and have distinct nuclei and mucous endoplasmic reticulum , ribosomes and some mitochondria.

Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of cortex interstitial fluid ?

Description : Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of cortex interstitial fluid ?

Last Answer : Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of cortex interstitial fluid ? ... B. DCT C. PCT D. NaCl and urea

The main function of interstitial cells is

Description : The main function of interstitial cells is

Last Answer : The main function of interstitial cells is A. Replacement of lost cells B. Excretion C. Digestion D. Defence