Edema is BEST described as: B A. Purulent reaction B. An increase in interstitial fluid C. Extravascular hemorrhage D. None of these

Edema is BEST described as:
B
A. Purulent reaction
B. An increase in interstitial fluid
C. Extravascular hemorrhage
D. None of these
by

1 Answer

Answer :

An increase in interstitial fluid
by

Related questions

Each of the following can produce edema (increased fluid in the interstitial space) EXCEPT C A. Cardiac failure B. Hepatic failure C. Arterial occlusion D. None of these

Description : Each of the following can produce edema (increased fluid in the interstitial space) EXCEPT C A. Cardiac failure B. Hepatic failure C. Arterial occlusion D. None of these

Last Answer : Arterial occlusion

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion

Description : A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have: a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy b. Cystoid macular edema c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Central retinal vein occlusion 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of pulmonary interstitial edema? a. Diuresis and blood transfusion is a valuable step b. Salt-poor albumin leaks through the capillaries and worsens the condition c. Mannitol is contraindicated as a diuretic in this clinical situation d. Isoproterenol is a poor choice as an ionotropic agent

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Last Answer : Answer: a Treatment of pulmonary edema has two important goals, the first is to improve oxygenation if it is impaired, and the second is to minimize fibrosis and bacterial infection, which often ... leaks out , the short term effects of expanding blood volume and decrease in edema will appear

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of hypoxanthine and xanthene b. Oxygen free radicals such as the superoxide radical are involved in the expression of the proinflammatory phenotype of endothelial cells, macrophages and neutrophils c. The intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAN-1) contributes to injury and disruption of the endothelial lining, with extensive capillary leak and resultant interstitial edema d. Animal models have demonstrated that passive immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d During the ischemia and hypoperfusion phase, degradation of ATP stores essential to maintain cell integrity and significant loss of diffusible ... either the neutrophil adhesive complex or the endothelial selectins dramatically lessens ischemia/reperfusion microvascular injury

All of the following statements about hemorrhagic shock are true except: A. Following hemorrhagic shock, there is an initial interstitial fluid volume contraction. B. Dopamine, or a similar inotropic agent, should be given immediately for resuscitation from hemorrhagic shock, to increase cardiac output and improve oxygen delivery to hypoperfused tissues. C. The use of colloid solutions or hypertonic saline solutions is contraindicated for treatment of hemorrhagic shock. D. In hemorrhagic shock, a narrowed pulse pressure is commonly seen before a fall in systolic blood pressure.

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Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Hemorrhagic shock is associated with a contraction of the interstitial fluid compartment because of precapillary vasoconstriction and reabsorption of interstitial fluid ... definitive evidence that such solutions are better than standard crystalloid solutions is lacking

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

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Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of cortex interstitial fluid ?

Description : Which of the following play a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of cortex interstitial fluid ?

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The highest concentration of proteins is present in (A) Plasma (B) Interstitial fluid (C) Interstitial fluid (D) Transcellular fluid

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Last Answer : Answer : C

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the physiology of the microvascular system? a. Filtration of capillary fluid into the interstitial and the subsequent reabsorption is influenced by Starling’s law of ultrafiltration b. The most important variable controlling blood to a capillary bed is the length of the vessel c. Most of the resistance to systemic blood flow occurs at the arteriolar level d. Adrenergic vasoconstriction can arrest blood flow to an entire capillary bed

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Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Exchange of material between the vascular space and the cell of various tissues via the interstitial space is essential for organ viability and occurs at the ... contractions are potent enough that blood flow to entire capillary beds can be arrested by adrenergic vasoconstriction

Which of the following statements about extracellular fluid are true? A. The total extracellular fluid volume represents 40% of the body weight. B. The plasma volume constitutes one fourth of the total extracellular fluid volume. C. Potassium is the principal cation in extracellular fluid. D. The protein content of the plasma produces a lower concentration of cations than in the interstitial fluid. E. The interstitial fluid equilibrates slowly with the other body compartments.

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Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The total extracellular fluid volume represents 20% of body weight. The plasma volume is approximately 5% of body weight. Sodium is the principal cation. The ... fluid and cerebrospinal fluid, the majority of the interstitial fluid exists as a rapidly equilibrating component

The connective tissue that connects a muscle to a bone is – (1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) Tendon (4) Interstitial fluid

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Deuterium oxide and inulin are injected into a normal 30-year-old man. The volume of distribution of deuterium oxide is found to be 42 L and that of inulin 14 L. a. The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 14 L. b. The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 28 L. c. The man’s plasma volume is about 7 L. d. The man’s interstitial fluid volume is about 9 L. e. The man’s total body water cannot be calculated from these data

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Last Answer : The man’s intracellular fluid volume is about 28 L.

The primary force moving water molecules from the blood plasma to the interstitial fluid is a. active transport b. cotransport with H+ c. facilitated diffusion d. cotransport with Na+ e. filtration

Description : The primary force moving water molecules from the blood plasma to the interstitial fluid is a. active transport b. cotransport with H+ c. facilitated diffusion d. cotransport with Na+ e. filtration

Last Answer : filtration

The lymph serves to (a) return the interstitial fluid to the blood (b) return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph nodes (c) transport CO2 to the lungs (d) transport O2 to the brain

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Last Answer : (a) return the interstitial fluid to the blood

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

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Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

The connective tissue that connects a muscle to a bone is (1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) Tendon (4) Interstitial fluid

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the relationship between cardiac function and effective blood volume? a. A pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 5–10 rules out fluid overload as a cause of pulmonary edema b. A shift to the right in the Frank-Starling curve is associated with compromised cardiac function c. Dilutional anemia may contribute to tachycardia even though blood volume and filling pressures are normal d. The sole purpose of a pulmonary artery catheter is to measure pulmonary artery pressure and cardiac output

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Which characteristic sign of inflammation is NOT correctly associated with its cause? a. Edema—nerve damage b. Heat—blood warmth c. Swelling—fluid accumulation d. Redness—blood accumulation

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Last Answer : d. Redness—blood accumulation

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

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Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

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Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Description : The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is: A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Furosemide C. Metolazone D. Amiloride

Last Answer : B. Furosemide

In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to: a. Hemorrhage at macula b. Increased choroidal perfusion c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

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Last Answer : ANSWER: D

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Description : A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue A. Erythema B. Ecchymosis C. Cellulitis

Last Answer : Ans: C

Small elevation of skin containing purulent material A. Papule B. Pustule C. Vesicle D. Cyst

Description : Small elevation of skin containing purulent material A. Papule B. Pustule C. Vesicle D. Cyst

Last Answer : Ans: B

In chicken, Staph. aureus is mainly responsible for A A. Purulent arthritis B. Enteritis C. Pneumonia D. None of the these

Description : In chicken, Staph. aureus is mainly responsible for A A. Purulent arthritis B. Enteritis C. Pneumonia D. None of the these

Last Answer : Purulent arthritis

n chronic fowl cholera characteristic findings are D A. Swelling of Wattles B. purulent pneumonia C. peritonitis D. All of the these

Description : n chronic fowl cholera characteristic findings are D A. Swelling of Wattles B. purulent pneumonia C. peritonitis D. All of the these

Last Answer : All of the these

The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

Description : The first dressing change for an autografted area is performed a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent ... is noted. Sanguineous drainage on a dressing covering an autograft is an anticipated abnormal observation postoperatively.

Last Answer : a) as soon as foul odor or purulent drainage is noted, or 3-5 days after surgery. A foul odor or purulent infection may indicate infection and should be reported to the surgeon immediately.

When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled. b) clean. Clean cases are those with no apparent source of potential infection. c) contaminated. Contaminated cases are those that contain an open and obvious source of potential infection. d) dirty. A traumatic wound with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Description : When the surgeon performs an appendectomy, the nurse recognizes that the surgical category will be identified as a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited ... with foreign bodies, fecal contamination, or purulent drainage would be considered a dirty case.

Last Answer : a) clean contaminated. Clean-contaminated cases are those with a potential, limited source for infection, the exposure to which, to a large extent, can be controlled.

As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics ... and irrigation is mandatory E. Zn oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

Description : The MOST common staphylococcal infections is: A. A localised purulent infection of the skin B. Diffuse purulent infection of the skin C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis D. Impetigo

Last Answer : A. A localised purulent infection of the skin

As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Description : As far as localised alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is concerned; which one of the following is true? M07 A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic ... diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth

Last Answer : C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually: a. Copious purulent discharge b. Copious muco-purulent discharge c. Excessive watery lacrimation d. Mucoid ropy white discharge

Description : In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually: a. Copious purulent discharge b. Copious muco-purulent discharge c. Excessive watery lacrimation d. Mucoid ropy white discharge

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from: a. Trachoma b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Bulbar spring catarrh d. Purulent conjunctivitis

Description : Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most ... from: a. Trachoma b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis c. Bulbar spring catarrh d. Purulent conjunctivitis 

Last Answer : ANSWER: C 

What is cerebral hemorrhage? -Biology

Description : What is cerebral hemorrhage? -Biology

Last Answer : answer:

What is hemorrhage ?

Description : What is hemorrhage ?

Last Answer : The process by which blood clots and turns into a semi-solid jelly-like substance is called blood clotting.

Subconjunctival hemorrhage?

Description : Subconjunctival hemorrhage?

Last Answer : DefinitionSubconjunctival hemorrhage is a bright red patch appearing in the white of the eye. This condition is also called red eye.Alternative NamesRed eyeCauses, incidence, and risk factorsA subconjunctival ... is thought to be caused by the pressure changes across the infant's body during

Subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Description : Subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Last Answer : DefinitionSubarachnoid hemorrhage is bleeding in the area between the brain and the thin tissues that cover the brain. This area is called the subarachnoid space.Alternative NamesHemorrhage - subarachnoidCauses, incidence ... 10-15 out of 10,000 people. Subarachnoid hemorrhage due to rupture of a ce

Intraventricular hemorrhage of the newborn?

Description : Intraventricular hemorrhage of the newborn?

Last Answer : DefinitionIntraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) of the newborn is bleeding into the fluid-filled areas (ventricles) surrounded by the brain. The condition is most often seen in premature babies.Alternative ... high blood pressure. The condition may also occur in healthy premature babies who were b

A bomb blast victim presents with nausea and abdominal pain. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan shows no hemorrhage. What treatment should be recommended?

Description : A bomb blast victim presents with nausea and abdominal pain. A Computed Tomography (CT) scan shows no hemorrhage. What treatment should be recommended?

Last Answer : watch for hematoma to develop

Absolute indications for a double-lumen endotracheal tube during thoracic surgery are: A. Massive hemorrhage from one lung. B. Unilateral lung infection. C. Facilitation of surgical exposure. D. Unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage. E. All of the above.

Description : Absolute indications for a double-lumen endotracheal tube during thoracic surgery are: A. Massive hemorrhage from one lung. B. Unilateral lung infection. C. Facilitation of surgical exposure. D. Unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: The absolute indications for a double-lumen tube are for the purposes of protecting one lung from the other. These indications include ventilation with ... include facilitation of surgical exposure, for pneumonectomy, upper lobectomy, and thoracic aneurysm repair

What are the mechanisms of hemorrhage contention called?

Description : What are the mechanisms of hemorrhage contention called?

Last Answer : The physiological mechanisms of hemorrhage contention (one of them is blood clotting) are generically named hemostasis, or hemostatic processes.

Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as – (1) Ischemia (2) Hyperemia (3) Hemostasia (4) Hemorrhage

Description : Insufficient blood supply in human body is referred as – (1) Ischemia (2) Hyperemia (3) Hemostasia (4) Hemorrhage

Last Answer : (1) Ischemia Explanation: In medicine, ischemia denotes a restriction or thinning or to make or grow thin/lean, haema blood) is a restriction in blood supply to tissues, causing a ... given part of a body sometimes resulting from congestion (such as vasoconstriction, thrombosis or embolism).

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment

Description : Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is: a. Macular oedema b. Microaneurysm c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Retinal detachment  

Last Answer : ANSWER: A

A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is: a. Posterior subcapsular cataract b. Retinopathy of prematurity c. Optic neuritis d. Vitreous hemorrhage

Description : A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is: a. Posterior subcapsular cataract b. Retinopathy of prematurity c. Optic neuritis d. Vitreous hemorrhage 

Last Answer : ANSWER: A