Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in the stomach (b) Side effects include heartburn, flatulence, and sweating (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin

Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in the stomach (b) Side effects include heartburn, flatulence, and sweating (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin
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For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide

Last Answer : Ans: B

A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2–3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal INR of 2.5–3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2–3

Description : A patient to be commenced on oral anticoagulant therapy for DVT would be treated with (a) Oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin for a goal intenational normalized ration (INR) of 2-3 (b) Oral anticoagulant therapy ... of 2.5-3.5 (c) Oral anticoagulant therapy with aspirin for a goal INR of 2-3

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin

Description : Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin

Last Answer : Ans: B

Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate

Description : Major beneficial effect of nitrates in classical angina is due to (a) Dilation of veins more than arteries (b) Increase in total coronary blood flow (c) An increase in the end diastolic size of the heart (d) An increase in the heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

In a patient receiving digoxin for congestive heart failure, condition that may facilitate the appearance of toxicity include (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypernatremia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (e) All of the above

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Last Answer : Ans: D

For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Last Answer : Ans: B

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other’s side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

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Last Answer : Ans: C

The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except (a) Angina pectoris (b) Sudden cardiac death (c) Congestive heart failur (CHF) (d) Arrhythmias

Description : The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except (a) Angina pectoris (b) Sudden cardiac death (c) Congestive heart failur (CHF) (d) Arrhythmias

Last Answer : Ans: C

Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Aldosterone release is stimulated by (a) Angiotensin I (b) Angiotensin (c) Angiotensin III (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Aldosterone release is stimulated by (a) Angiotensin I (b) Angiotensin (c) Angiotensin III (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: D

Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Description : Situations that predispose a digitalistreated patient to toxicity include (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hypermagnesemia

Last Answer : Ans: A

Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Description : Drugs used in asthma that often cause tachycardia and tremor include (a) Beclomethasone (b) Cromolyn sodium (c) Ipratropium (d) Metaproterenol (e) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

What do you mean by enteric coated tablet? Give reasons for enteric coating.

Description : What do you mean by enteric coated tablet? Give reasons for enteric coating.

Last Answer : Enteric Coated tablet:   1. These tablets are coated with the material which does not disintegrate in stomach but passes through as it is i.e. enteric polymer e.g.: Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose phthalate ... stomach pH. 4. Drug absorption is better in intestine. 5. Delayed action is needed. 

Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Last Answer : Ans: C

Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Description : Strong anticholinergic effects limit the antiarrhythmic use of (a) Quinidine (b) Procainamide (c) Tocainide (d) Flecainide (e) Disopyramide

Last Answer : Ans: E

A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to (a) Concomitant use of antacids (b) Fods containing tyramine (c) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over – the – counter decongestants

Description : A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for some time without untoward effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the antihypertensive effect of the drug, it is probably due to ... ) Grapefruit juice (d) Induction of drug metabolism (e) Over - the - counter decongestants

Last Answer : Ans: C

Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans: D 68. In heart, potassium channels determine (a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Description : Procainamide differs from quinidine in the following respect (a) It does not cause paradoxical tachycardia (b) It has no alfa adrenergic blocking activity (c) It has little antivagal action (d) Both (b ... a) Pacemaker function (b) Resting potential (c) Action potential duration (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above

Description : The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension or circulatolry collapse (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Ans: E

When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return

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Last Answer : Ans: A

A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Description : A treatment of angina that consistently decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) NIFedipine (c) Nitroglycerin (d) Propranolol (e) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: E

A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Description : A 55-year-old patient currently receiving other drugs for another condition is to be started on diuretic therapy for mild heart failure. Thiazides are known to reduce the excretion of (a) Diazepam (b) Fluoxetine (c) Imipramine (d) Lithium (e) Potassium

Last Answer : Ans: D

Why enteric coating is given to the tablets.

Description : Why enteric coating is given to the tablets.

Last Answer : i. To control the site of action of drugs. ii.. Drug absorption is better in intestine iii. for drugs producing severe irritation in stomach. iv. To produce the sustained release product. v. To prevent the drug degradation in stomach pH.

If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Description : If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following drugs is most likely to exacerbate this condition? (a) Colestipol (b) Gemfibrozil (c) Lovastatin (d) Niacin (e) Simvastatin

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Description : Which of the following antianginal drugs is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect ? (a) Amlodipine (b) Nifedipine (c) Diltiazem (d) Verapamil

Last Answer : Ans: B

Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)

Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)

Last Answer : Ans: D

In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Description : In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Last Answer : Ans: E

Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) Relaxes vascular smooth muscle (d) Slows the depolarization phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Description : Regarding verapamil, which one of the following statements is false? (a) Angina pectoris is an important indication for the use of verapamil (b) Contraindicated in the asthmatic patient (c) ... phase of the action potential in AV nodal cells (e) Used in management of supraventricular tachycardias

Last Answer : Ans: B

A 65-year-old is interested in taking ginkgo. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ginkgo? (a) Ginkgo is contraindicated in diabetes and pregnancy (b) There is a drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and aspirin (c) Toxic effects include hypertension and cardiac arrest (d) There is a drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and phenelzine (e) Ginkgo is contraindicated in patients with gallstone pain

Description : A 65-year-old is interested in taking ginkgo. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ginkgo? (a) Ginkgo is contraindicated in diabetes and pregnancy (b) There is a ... drug-herb interaction between ginkgo and phenelzine (e) Ginkgo is contraindicated in patients with gallstone pain

Last Answer : Ans: B

Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels (a) They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow (b) They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles (c) They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries (d) They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels (a) They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow (b) They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries (d) They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : Ans: B

Can raw garlic and honey be eaten on an empty stomach during pregnancy ?

Description : Can raw garlic and honey be eaten on an empty stomach during pregnancy ?

Last Answer : Yes, you can eat garlic and honey on an empty stomach while pregnant . However, if you have allergies, do not eat garlic. Eating too much garlic can cause allergies. So eat 2/1 clove of garlic with honey.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere? (a) Aerobic nitrate oxidation and nitrite reduction (b) Decomposition of organic nitrogen and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds (c) Enteric fermentation in cattle and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes (d) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and denitrification

Description : Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere? (a) Aerobic nitrate oxidation and nitrite reduction (b) ... fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes (d) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and denitrification

Last Answer : (d) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and denitrification

Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) Gastric sump A gastric sump is used to decompress and empty the stomach. c) Dobbhoff Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Description : Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) ... Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Last Answer : a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location.

Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Description : Combined therapy with dipyridamole and warfarin is recommended in subjects with the following: A. Risk factors for coronary artery disease B. Prosthetic heart valves C. Cerebral thrombosis D. Buerger's disease

Last Answer : B. Prosthetic heart valves

Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above

Description : Major lipid class present in chylomicrons is (a) Endogenous triglycerides (b) Cholesterol esters (c) Dietary triglycerides (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Last Answer : Ans: A

Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above

Description : Following statement is true about lidocaine (a) Reduce the slope of Phase 4 (b) Threshold excitability is not altered (c) Action potential is not affected (d) All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: A

The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Description : The agent given sublingually in an acute attack of angina pectoris is (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Amyl nitrite (c) Erythrital tetranitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate

Last Answer : Ans: A

Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation

Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation

Last Answer : Ans: D

Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna

Description : Cardiac glycosides are obtained from following plant source. (a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Strophanthus gratus (c) Ricinus commounts. (d) Atropa belladonna

Last Answer : Ans: B

Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril

Description : Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug (a) Nifedipine (b) Verapamil (c) Diltiazem (d) Lisinopril

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid

Description : Which of the following drugs is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascular diseases by promoting RBC flexibility ? (a) Cyclandelate (b) Theophyline (c) Pentoxiphyline (d) Nicotinic acid

Last Answer : Ans: C

‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem

Description : ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with (a) Glyceryl trinitrate (b) Dipyridamole (c) Propranolol (d) Diltiazem

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride

Description : Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener ? (a) Pinacidil (b) Hydralazine (c) Glibenclamide (d) Amiloride

Last Answer : Ans: A

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Description : Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving (a) Nifedipine (b) Felodipine (c) Verapamil (d) Isosorbide mononitrate

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Description : Which of the following is not an attribute of amlodipine ? (a) High and consistent oral bioavailability (b) Large volume of distribution (c) Generation of an active metabolite (d) Long elimination half-life

Last Answer : Ans: C